Christians: Why does the bible give rapists the write to buy their victims from their fathers?

Question

28 If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered,

29 he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. [c] He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives.

30 A man is not to marry his father's wife; he must not dishonor his father's bed.


Can someone explain such a thing.

Why does the bible give rapists the right to buy their victims from their fathers?

Type on the question there, sorry

Answer 1

How anyone can actually believe in, let alone read, this miserable compost is beyond me.

I just love what Gravtol said:

"it still requires the woman's consent...
If she says no then she will not be his husband.
This act was put into place to protect women not to punish them"

Now WHAT kind of twisted reasoning is that? Aside from being misogynistic it's absolutely crazy. Why oh why would a person even bother to ask a woman if she'd like to marry her rapist?? Duuh.
And this act was put in place to "protect" women you say? I suspect you've been taking some bad drugs...called the "bible"...messes you right up. Worse than crack I hear.

This is typical 'colluding with the enemy' sort of reasoning. People tend to do that when they're in denial.

EDIT:

Jewishgirl - Apparently you too are on drugs! Yikes. Must be a very dark break from reality, huh. Oh, wait, you're not familiar with reality. So sorry. Have fun with your folk tales.

Answer 2

The Father had the Right to refuse Any Man's Offer of Marriage!

Exodus 22:16-17
16 And if a man entice a maid that is not betrothed, and lie with her, he shall surely endow her to be his wife. 17 If her father utterly refuse to give her unto him, he shall pay money according to the dowry of virgins.

Deuteronomy 22:28-29
28 If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found; 29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.


A woman who wasn't a Virgin Suffered Greatly at that time.

This law forced a man to be Honorable and do his Duty by her. It was a Law for the time. A rapist were also put to death. In the case of an unmarried woman (virgin) this was a way to secure her future in THOSE TIMES.

Answer 3

Yes, I can help explain this. the word Rape is used here because a woman could not consent to sex with a man. Her father had to marry her off and it was the father who gave consent to the young man to take the young lady as his wife.

So, what is being said here is, if a young man and a young lady decide for themselves to have sex before marriage, the man must pay the father for taking the right he had to give his daughter away. Because the young man was not formally accepted as a proper husband for the young lady, he now gives up any rights that he may have had in that culture to divorce her for any reason, including if she cheated on him.

Answer 4

Technically you should ask the Jewish Religion that is from Deuteronomy (the Hebrew book of Laws) not the Christian New Testament

And also technically it does not say that it says:

"If a man comes upon a maiden that is not betrothed, takes her and has relations with her, and their deed is discovered,
the man who had relations with her shall pay the girl's father fifty silver shekels and take her as his wife, because he has deflowered her. Moreover, he may not divorce her as long as he lives.

there is a big difference between relations and rape. Relations implies willingness, Rape never does

Answer 5

don't take things out of context. just because the rapist would be forced to marry his victim, doesn't mean the victim would be forced to accept him. all she had to do was say no.

EDIT

well Rain, who would you would rather have been, a raped woman living in ancient israel who perhaps might have married her rapist but who would then at least have been guaranteed a roof over her head and a husband legally obligated to provide her and her children with food and clothing for the rest of their lives, or a raped woman in ancient rome or anywhere else who would have found herself shunned and homeless, with no chances of ever finding a husband, possibly pregnant and forced to either prostitute herself for the rest of her life or starve to death while her rapist would go on living the good life, with no responsibility to the woman whose life he'd forever ruined or the child he may have created?

wow, how mysogynistic the bible authors must have been, attempting to make lives easier for innocent women who had been raped. how oppressive they were, doing their best to prevent their lives from being completely and unfairly destroyed. you may not think so, but any raped woman living three thousand years ago would have considered this law a godsend.

Answer 6

it still requires the woman's consent

If she says no then she will not be his husband.


In fact its the woman who has the choice in the matter not the man.

It was harder in biblical times (rape or not) for a woman who was not a virgin to get married. As such if she is rapped then she has the option of staying with the man who rapped her. As punishment he has no say and cannot even divorce her.

This act was put into place to protect women not to punish them.

Answer 7

the mother is just the father´s wife!!!! that must come from the bible

Answer 8

The Bible says the rapist might desire to marry the rape sufferer. i comprehend that is not straightforward to work out the version, whether that is there. The rape sufferer does *not* might desire to marry the rapist. If her father does not prefer her to marry him (because of the fact in those days it replaced into the daddy's determination), the rapist nevertheless owes him the bride value. in any different case, the rapist might desire to marry her, and would possibly not divorce her, meaning she would be waiting to be offered for her entire existence. that is not straightforward to wrap your inelastic recommendations around such an theory, yet this replaced into easily extra effective for the rape sufferer than if she did not have the alternative of marrying her rapist, because of the fact in any different case she might probable be solid into the streets and compelled into prostitution.

Answer 9

I have never seen the word rape appear in the bible. Sorry.