My neighborhood is trying to establish a new pedestrian/bike path with the city which may involve the need for a few properties to give small strips of land to the city to make it possible. Is the value of the land given to the city claimable as a "donation" and if so, at what value, fair market value as of date of transfer or some other calculation? (Note that this situation is NOT one where the city would claim or take the land by emminent domain. And in case it matters though I would think it shouldn't, the jurisdiction happens to be Palo Alto, CA.) Thanks!
2007-03-22
10:17:18
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2 answers
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asked by
Jonathan L
4
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United States