2007-03-22 09:47:08 · 14 answers · asked by WWTSD? 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because, when the bible was written, by men, it was considered normal and natural (and fun) for men to have more than one wife. They (the men) wanted to continue this fine tradition. Adultery, in the bible, really just means wives cheating on their husbands - it is not the more balanced concept that we have today.
2007-03-22 09:51:11 · answer #1 · answered by Alan 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because the concept of monogamy didnt come along in any fasion until new testament? and it was just a "suggestion" not an edict.. pologamy was the norm in biblical times.. both old and new testiment (Paul suggested that men shouldnt get married at all ever if they could avoid it) Read yer book people.. Sheesh
Number of wives was dependant on ability to take care of the extended family... there is still to date no biblical law restrricting pologamy and multiple wives.. thats just a basic man made 'law" in US/Europe.. pologamy is still a norm in many parts of the world even today... and its biblically accurate..
Now On a side note (for you guys) I have lived with more than one girl at once before (a few times) lemme tell ya its not all its cracked up to be.. If girl A is pissed at you? guess what ? Girl B is gonna be pissed at you too... I've had much more luck with a 2 guy 1 girl relationship.. (in fact 'd have to say that was my best and most workable to date LOL)
2007-03-22 16:54:17 · answer #2 · answered by darchangel_3 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because at that time the Law of Moses was not established at that time. You have to read Romans chapter 5:13-14 I believe. But at that time and dispensation, since the Law was not in place sin was not counted or imputed against man. It says, "......for until the Law sin was in the world; but sin in not "imputed' when there is no law. Nevertheless, death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of Adam's offense, who is a type of Him who was to come". So what I am saying is that during the time of Abraham the Law of Moses was not in place which judged such things as multiple wives. So Abraham's actions were not imputed against him. Also, in his culture at that time it was lawful for him to have a concubine.
2007-03-22 17:05:35 · answer #3 · answered by super saiyan 3 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because the> real god
like killing the Canaanites and stealing there lands
2007-03-22 17:39:40 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why don't you hear the word of God before accusing Abraham?
2007-03-22 16:50:27 · answer #5 · answered by John 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Because he will multiply by 10 (at least) the problems he had, when he had only one wife. He will learn, and then, he'll teach his knowledge to future generations.
2007-03-22 17:12:19 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is that a problem? Solomon had 300 wives and 600 concubines. See how far you can follow THAT line of David!
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2007-03-22 16:54:52 · answer #7 · answered by Hatikvah 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He did. He said (according to the Q'uran)" men may have up to four wives, but since most of you men can't feed, clothe or house four women, you may have one." Although I'm not sure "he" said this to Abraham...might've been to Mohammed.
2007-03-22 16:52:10 · answer #8 · answered by dorkmobile 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Hubby likes to bring this one to my attention quite often ;)
I told him he'd have to wait and ask God if he could have a harem.
If ya think about it, it was a pretty fast way to populate the earth.
2007-03-22 16:56:26 · answer #9 · answered by rezany 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because if He had done that, then Joseph Smith would never have been able to have as many wives as he did either, and Mormons wouldn't exist, and we'd have no white-shirted missionaries to poke fun at.
2007-03-22 16:54:30 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋