and then say that only The Bible could be used to determine doctrine.
2007-03-22 05:39:08 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Because the books he wanted removed did not fit with his other "solas" - "sola scriptura" just being one of five.
He saw St. Jame's Epistle as a threat to "sola fide" and "sola gratia" - cornerstones of his new Protestant "faith".
I will admit - it's pretty hypocritical.
2007-03-22 05:43:51 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
It's not so much he 'wanted' as he used a different source for the Old Testament.
Whereas all Bibles to that point had been based on the Septuagint, Martin Luther based his OT on the Pentateuch.
Lucky for Martin Luther that that last chapter of Revelation only applies to Revelation and not the Bible... ... oh wait, most fundamentalists believe it applies to the whole Bible. Hope Luther packed for warm weather.
2007-03-22 12:46:51 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 2⤋
I believe that you are misrepresenting what Martin Luther said and believed.
You are not going to convince anyone that you are right, and they are wrong, if you sound ignorant. People will simply ignore someone who sounds uneducated and foolish.
---edit---
Give me the thumbs down if you want, but that won't turn lies into the truth.
And Protestant doctrine does not stand or fall based on one man. It stands on the teaches of Jesus and the apostles (I.E.: the Bible), not necessarily the teachings of Martin Luther. Educate yourself, lest your ignorant rants drive people farther away from Catholicism.
2007-03-22 12:45:07 · answer #3 · answered by Randy G 7 · 1⤊ 5⤋
He basically tried to do what the early Church did over 1000 years before him....
2007-03-22 12:52:50 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
The ones he removed didn't suit his lifestyle.
God bless,
Stanbo
2007-03-22 12:42:25 · answer #5 · answered by Stanbo 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋