hes the SON of god but he has the power of god
2007-03-21 05:23:44
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answer #1
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answered by shiek yerbouti 3
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At John 1:1,the KIng James Version,reads:"In the beginning was the Word,and the Word was with God,and the Word was God"Trinitarians claim that this means that "the Word"(Greek ho logos) who came to earth as Jesus Christ was Almighty God himself.
Note,however,that here again the context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding.Even,the King James Version says,"The Word was WITH God".Someone who is "with" another person cannot be the same as that other person.In agreement with this,the Journel of Biblical Literature edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean "the" God,this "would then contradict the preceding clause"which says the Word was WITH God.
Note,too,how other translations render this part of the verse:
1808: "and the word was a god"The New Testament in a Improved Version,Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome's New Translation:With a corrected Text.
1864:"and a god was the word"The Emphatic Diaglott,Interlinear reading,by Benjamin Wilson.
1828:"and the Word was a divine being"La Bible du Centenaire,L'Evangile selon Jean,by Maurice Goguel
1935:"And the Word was divine"The Bible-And American Translation,by J.M.P.Smith and E.J. Goodspeed.
1958:"and the Word was a god" The New Testament by James L. Tomanek.
These are just some translations that recognise that at John 1:1 there are two occurances of the Greek noun,the-os'(god).The first occurance refers to Almighty God,with whom the Word was("and the Word [lo'gos]was with God[a form of the-os']").Now this first the-os' is preceded by the word ton (the), a form of the Greek definite article that points to a distinct identity,in this case Almighty God("and the Word was with [the]God").
On the other hand,there is no article before the second the-os' at John 1:1.So a literal translation would read "and god was the Word"Yet many translations render this second the-os'(a predicate noun) as "divine","godlike" or "a god".On what authority do they do this?
The Koine Greek language had a definite article("the")but it did not have an indefinite article("a" or "an").So when a predicate noun is not preceded by the definite articleit may be indefinite depending on the context.The Journal of Biblical Literature says that expressions with an anarthrous [no article] predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning.As the Journal,notes,this indicates that the lo'gos can be likened to a god.It aslso says of John 1:1:"The qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the-os' ]cannot be regarded as definite".
So John 1:1 highlights the quality of the Word,that he was "divine","godlike","a god",but not Almighty God.This harmonizes with the rest of the Bible,which shows that Jesus here called "the Word" in his role as God's spokesman, was an obedient subordinate sent to earth by his Superior,Almighty God,Jehovah
2007-03-22 03:01:42
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answer #2
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answered by lillie 6
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Jesus is the Mighty God, Son of Jehovah, the Almighty God. John 1;1 is a favorite scriputre that other religion loves to debate with Jehovah's Witnesses but fail to read the rest of the verses for example John 1:14 which says that the Word (Jesus) came "FROM" the Father. Also, John 17:3 says "This is eternal life; that they may know you, the only true God, AND Jesus Christ, whom YOU have sent." (note the word "AND") Does't that explains that there are 2 different individuals here? (1) The only true, God (the Father), (2) whom He sent forth, his Son, Jesus Christ.
Jesus is god--having God-like power but all this power came from his Father. So, technically, Jehovah is the true Almighty God with Jesus second to Him just like a "son is second to his father"
With the quoted text above, i read that from the New International Version BIBLE , given to me by a priest and NOT from the New World Translation that Jehovah's witnesses commonly use. I'm not a jehovah's witness but i do open my doors to them.
2007-03-21 08:32:34
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Regarding the trinity, the teaching developed way after both Jesus and his discipled had died. If it were meant for us to believe in a trinity, don't you think Jesus would have told his disciples to preach that instead of preaching that Jehovah was alone the only true God?
Jesus himself stated he was here to do the will of his father, not the will of his own. If he was the father, he would not have stated that in that way.
The Encyclopedia of Religion admits: "Theologians today are in agreement that the Hebrew Bible does not contain a doctrine of the Trinity." And the New Catholic Encyclopedia also says: "The doctrine of the Holy Trinity is not taught in the O[ld] T[estament]."
Paul also wrote: "The time is sure to come when, far from being content with sound teaching, people will be avid for the latest novelty and collect themselves a whole series of teachers according to their own tastes; and then, instead of listening to the truth, they will turn to myths."—2 Timothy 4:3, 4, JB.
2007-03-21 05:27:02
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answer #4
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answered by ♥LadyC♥ 6
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traditionally, that's shown that Jesus Christ Existed. He grow to be there. He grow to be genuine. there is not any denying that. everyday texts quote him as declaring no longer in effortless terms himself, yet all others as toddlers of God. whether he meant this actually for himself and figuratively for each guy or woman (or perhaps the different or some blend) is unknown. that's widely primary that Jesus, son of God or no longer, grow to be a prophet. it is the place it gets complicated. Assuming there is in effortless terms one celestial God or Lord or what have you ever, then He sent down 3 books. the 1st: the Torah. the 2d: The Bible. The 0.33: The Koran. the justifications for this could be everywhere from a diverse e book for various cultures (altered so that's extra honestly understood) to he stored sending books because of the fact people needless to say weren't analyzing the 1st 2 properly. in case you think the latter, then analyzing the Koran you will see that Jesus is suggested as a prophet, yet additionally as a 'fake god'. this might recommend that he grow to be sent to earth to unfold the solid observe, yet instead of being respected as a prophet he grow to be made right into a holy being. Believing the Koran might recommend hence believing Jesus meant 'Son of God' Figuratively.
2016-10-02 12:32:33
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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It would make Jesus a Mighty God (not Almighty) just as Isaiah 9:6 foretold regarding him--"For unto us a Child is born, Unto us a Son is given; And the government will be upon His shoulder. And His name will be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."
Proverbs 8:22-31 shows how Jesus had a beginning. He was established and brought forth (created)
Almighty God was never established or brought forth, for he is without beginning or end.
Jesus is never given the title of Almighty God. He is the Son of Almighty God, He is a King and a Prince of peace. Jesus is also given the title of High Priest..( Hebrews 5:5-6 )
Jehovah calls him as such at Hebrews 5:10 --"called by God as High Priest “according to the order of Melchizedek."
(New KJV)
The English Standard Version renders this verse --"being designated by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek."
After Jesus completes his 1000 year reign over the earth and it's inhabitants, he will then turn the rulership back over to Jehovah, to whom it rightly belongs.___
"Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power. For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. The last enemy that will be destroyed is death. For “He has put all things under His feet.” But when He says “all things are put under Him,” it is evident that He who put all things under Him is excepted. Now when all things are made subject to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subject to Him who put all things under Him, that God may be all in all."
Yes, Jesus will then be subject to his Father, Jehovah..
Tanya---Thank you for the nice comment.
We can rightly call Jesus a "mighty god" but that does not mean that the title makes him the one "true God"
Remember, even Satan is called "a god" and we are told that there are many "gods" and many "lords" (1 Cor 8:4-6)
In these verses it says we have one true God the Father and one Lord, Jesus Christ. The holy spirit is not even mentioned here.
2007-03-21 06:20:45
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answer #6
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answered by Micah 6
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Hi. Every, or most, Bible(s) I have read, not just the NWT list Jesus as the Son of God.
If you read, wording depends on the translation, even Satan is at one point recognized as "God" of this system. People make Gods out of most anything.
The Bible refers to Christ as being a Mighty God. Jehovah seperately is refered to as Almighty God.
2007-03-21 11:06:50
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answer #7
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answered by Ish Var Lan Salinger 7
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Because of Jesus’ references to God as his Father, certain opposing Jews leveled the charge of blasphemy against him, saying, “You, although being a man, make yourself a god.” (Joh 10:33) Most translations here say “God”; Torrey’s translation lowercases the word as “god,” while the interlinear reading of The Emphatic Diaglott says “a god.” Support for the rendering “a god” is found principally in Jesus’ own answer, in which he quoted from Psalm 82:1-7. As can be seen, this text did not refer to persons as being called “God,” but “gods” and “sons of the Most High.”
According to the context, those whom Jehovah called “gods” and “sons of the Most High” in this psalm were Israelite judges who had been practicing injustice, requiring that Jehovah himself now judge ‘in the middle of such gods.’ (Ps 82:1-6, 8) Since Jehovah applied these terms to those men, Jesus was certainly guilty of no blasphemy in saying, “I am God’s Son.” Whereas the works of those judicial “gods” belied their being “sons of the Most High,” Jesus’ works consistently proved him to be in union, in harmonious accord and relationship, with his Father.—Joh 10:34-38.
2007-03-21 11:28:13
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answer #8
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answered by gary d 4
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(unconfirmed) Jebus was a prophet of God, not "The god" or "a god" it was not until later 2-3 centuries later that Jebus was "upgraded" to full on immortal and lost his human side. Like going from economy class to business class.
Strangely enough Muslims and Christians pray to the very same God. Christ was a prophet as was Mohammed. Jesus is in the Quran all depends on which Gang your in.
nuff said..............
2007-03-21 05:41:25
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answer #9
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answered by bunghulio 1
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Why challenge the Jehovah's witnesses. They actually teach there witnesses what each word in each verse means. This is why there views are a little different then most Christians. My grandmother says there a modern day occult. They believe that Jesus is God because in the Bible it says he makes Jesus from himself. And he is God in flesh. But the Bible does tend to counter-dict itself. That's why people can read the same verse and everyone gets something different out of it.
2007-03-21 05:37:09
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answer #10
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answered by norielorie 4
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Jesus is GOD`S son
2007-03-21 05:22:58
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answer #11
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answered by Dr Universe 7
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