In a pick 6 out of 49 lotto drawing:
Lowest possible outcome: 01-02-03-04-05-06 = 21
Largest possible outcome: 44-45-46-47-48-49 = 279
Out of the 13,983,816 total possible outcomes, the 6 winning numbers In ascending order:
1st will be between 01 - 44
2nd will be between 02 - 45
3rd will be between 03 - 46
4th will be between 04 - 47
5th will be between 05 - 48
6th will be between 06 - 49
Take the (21+279)/2 & Standard Deviation of about 33, means most of the winning numbers will add up to somewhere between 117 - 183.
Most winning numbers will be redrawn within 8 drawings.
After collecting data of past drawings:
Would you bet on numbers with high frequency?
Would you bet on numbers that haven't been drawn for over 8 drawings?
I've won 4 times so far, selecting 5 out of the 6 winning numbers. I stopped counting the the times I've won, selecting 4 & 3 out of the 6 winning numbers. I'm still trying to win a jackpot.
I need more computing power & luck =0p
2007-03-20
12:47:37
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5 answers
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asked by
r0bErT4u
5
in
Games & Recreation
➔ Gambling
Since most of the six winning numbers will total 117 - 183, how can 01-02-03-04-05-06 have the same odds of being drawn?
01+02+03+04+05+06 = 21, and that's the only way to total up to 21 in a pick 6 out of 49 lottery game. That holds true for the other extreme of 44+45+46+47+48+49 = 279.
Wouldn't eliminating the possible outcomes that fall outside the 117 - 183, be a wise thing to do?
Past drawings can show a bias towards certain numbers. Who knows? Are the lottery machines & ping pong balls truly a random? Don't forget the human factor?
On Court TV, a casino's Roulette Wheel was compromised with a pocket pc ... http://www.courttv.com/takedown/105.html
http://search.yahoo.com/search;_ylt=A0geu70_IANGqkIAV19XNyoA?p=%22Takedown%22+Court+TV+Roulette&ei=UTF-8&fr=yfp-t-501&x=wrt&vm=r
2007-03-22
13:37:41 ·
update #1