it had something to do with christ correct? but it wasnt exactly his birth. what was it though?
2007-03-20 11:22:01 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
it should have been his birth year but they noe suspect it was out by 4 years.
2007-03-20 11:25:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
There was no year 0. Starting one year before Jesus' birth up until the time of his birth was 1 B.C. The first year of Jesus' life was A.D. 1. Therefor no year 0.
Are you referring to the virginal conception as the significant event?
2007-03-20 11:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by infinity 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The modern English term "before Christ" (BC) is only a rough equivalent, not a direct translation, of Bede's Latin phrase ante incarnationis dominicae tempus ("before the time of the lordly incarnation"), which was itself never abbreviated. Incarnation means the conception, not the birth, of Christ, which since the 4th century has been celebrated on 25 March, nine months before the date on which the celebration of his birth at Christmas (25 December).
A year zero does not exist in:
the Gregorian calendar
the Julian calendar (predecessor to the Gregorian calendar)
A year zero does exist in:
ISO 8601:2004
astronomical year numbering with a defined year zero equal to 1 BC
Buddhist calendars
Hindu calendars
2007-03-20 11:25:05 · answer #3 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
NONE....
Zero was UNKNOWN in Western math at the time the calendar was established.
An error was made in determining the time of Herod's death when it was established. The birth of Christ likely fell during 4-6 B.C. The INTENT was that 1 A.D. represented his birth.
2007-03-20 11:27:51 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The millennium bug. But most people panicked too soon. The millennium wasn't over until the end of 2000, not the end of 1999. By the end of 2000, everybody had forgotten about it, and still...................nothing happened. It didn't have anything to do with Christ other that the fact that he is in control of everything anyway.
2007-03-20 11:29:49 · answer #5 · answered by sarge 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Year 0, as you call it, was supposed to be the year Jesus was born in, but due to changes in our calender system (We went from the Julian to the Gregorian calender in 1582) it is now thought Jesus was born around 6BC by our calender.
There are still some countries that follow the Julian calender, and I would think in those countries Year 0 would be exactly that.
2007-03-20 11:29:37 · answer #6 · answered by Taliesin Pen Beirdd 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There was no "year 0".
There was 1 BC and then 1 AD, but no 0.
The gregorian calendar was constructed by a monk named, you guessed it, Gregory, but he miscalculated his calendar by about 4 to 6 years, so Jesus was born in aproximately 4BC.
2007-03-20 11:30:17 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hundreds of years after Jesus was born, the Roman Empire adopted Christianity & changed the calendar to influence the masses, by making his birth the beginning of time. People today believe he was more likely born around 34AD but since no one calendar has been in effect for all mankind, all dates are pretty much meaningless.
2007-03-20 11:28:04 · answer #8 · answered by svaha 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No calendrical system has a year 0. The christian calendar went from 1 bc directly to 1 ad.
2007-03-20 11:27:13 · answer #9 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
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2016-11-27 01:29:13 · answer #10 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes it had to do with His birth and so we have BC which means Before Christ.
so 1 BC means 1 yr Before Christ
2007-03-20 11:27:16 · answer #11 · answered by tewarienormy 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋