Because if they did they would realise that:
(1) Sodom and Gommorah was no more "gay" than any other place. The bible says it was a populous city, which means that most of the people in it were OBVIOUSLY heterosexual and having children. Even Lots two daughters were ENGAGED to be married to men in the city.
(2) The gang of men who wanted to have sex with the two angels were obviously heterosexual. Why else would Lot even bother to offer his two DAUGHTERS to them as a distraction?
(3) A gang of men wanting to have sex with just two men? Isn't that GANG RAPE? If these men of Sodom attracted to or in love with the angelsthen YES, they were gay. But if this was about rape, then we are talking about a violent act. A rapist's only concern in humiliating and dominating another person and a lot of the men who rape other men in prison happen to be....... heterosexual.
(4) NO OTHER SCRIPTURE supports the claim that Sodom was destroyed because it wasa gay city.
2007-03-20
11:01:09
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2 answers
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asked by
jessicabjoseph
3
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality