Christians: re women in churches:?

Question

I have friends in a church where women in meetings do not pray publicly, give out hymns/songs or preach - or prohphesy for that matter.

This is because of the verse in Corinthians that says women should keep silent. What are your views on this?

Steve N: Thank you for your answer but I have to contradict you there: it does say that God has placed men in authority over women!

Answer 1

From 1 Corinthians (ESV Translation)
1Co 14:34 the women should keep silent in the churches. For they are not permitted to speak, but should be in submission, as the Law also says.
1Co 14:35 If there is anything they desire to learn, let them ask their husbands at home. For it is shameful for a woman to speak in church.

The instructions which Paul is giving to the Corinthian saints do not apply to them alone. These are the same instructions that have been addressed to all the churches of the saints. The uniform testimony of the NT is that while women have many valuable ministries, it is not given to them to have a public ministry to the whole church. They are entrusted with the unspeakably important work of the home and of raising children. But they are not allowed to speak publicly in the assembly. Theirs is to be a place of submission to the man. This rule is positive, explicit, and universal. There is no ambiguity in the expressions; and there can be no difference of opinion, one would suppose, in regard to their meaning.

The expression as the law also says has reference to the woman's being submissive to the man. This is clearly taught in the law, which here probably means the Pentateuch primarily. Gen_3:16, for instance, says “your desire shall be for your husband. And he shall rule over you.”

It is often contended that what Paul is forbidding in this verse is for the women to chatter or gossip while the service is going on. However, such an interpretation is not supportable. The word here translated speak (laleo) did not mean to chatter in Koine Greek. The same word is used of God in verse 21 of this chapter, and in Heb_1:1. It means to speak authoritatively.

14:35 Indeed, women are not permitted to ask questions publicly in the church. If they want to learn something, they should ask their own husbands at home. Some women might try to evade the previous prohibition against speaking by asking questions. It is possible to teach by the simple act of questioning others. So this verse closes any such loophole or objection.

There is, therefore, no inconsistency between the argument in 1 Cor. 11: and the statement here; and the force of the whole is, that on every consideration it was improper, and to be expressly prohibited, for women to conduct the devotions of the church. It does not refer to those only who claimed to be inspired, but to all; it does not refer merely to acts of public preaching, but to all acts of speaking, or even asking questions, when the church is assembled for public worship.

No rule in the New Testament is more positive than this; and however plausible may be the reasons which may be urged for disregarding it, and for suffering women to take part in conducting public worship, yet the authority of the apostle Paul is positive, and his meaning cannot be mistaken; compare 1Ti_2:11-12.

If it is asked how this applies to an unmarried woman or a widow, the answer is that the Scriptures do not try to take up each individual case, but merely set forth general principles. If a woman does not have a husband, she could ask her father, her brother, or one of the elders of the church. Actually, this may be translated, “Let them ask their men-folks at home.” The basic rule to be remembered is that it is shameful for women to speak in church.

14:36 Apparently the Apostle Paul realized that his teaching here would cause considerable contention. How right he was! To meet any arguments, he uses irony in verse 36 by asking: Or did the word of God come originally from you? Or was it you only that it reached? In other words, if the Corinthians professed to know more about these matters than the apostle, he would ask them if they, as a church, produced the word of God, or if they were the only ones who had received it. By their attitude they seemed to set themselves up as an official authority on these matters. But the facts are that no church originated the word of God, and no church has exclusive rights to it.

14:37 In connection with all the foregoing instructions, the apostle here emphasizes that they are not his own ideas or interpretations, but that they are the commandments of the Lord, and any man who is a prophet of the Lord or who is truly spiritual will acknowledge that that is the case. This verse is a sufficient answer to those who insist that some of Paul's teachings, especially those concerning women, reflected his own prejudices. These matters are not Paul's private view; they are the commandments of the Lord.

Answer 2

Scripture must be interpreted by scripture with no scripture standing alone to create a doctrine. The scriptures you are referring to I believe are 1 Corinthians 14:33-35. The culture of the time had men and women separated in the services, even if married, with men on one side of the church and women another. You could well imagine the confusion that would occur during the reading or preaching of the Word of God when a man's wife who probably could not read, nor ever attended church, would ask him questions across the church about the preaching in the middle of the church service! This is not a command for women to be silent praying, singing, testifying, teaching, or even preaching! Again don't just take this one scripture to build a doctrine. There are multiple instances in the Old and New Testament where women were used by God as Prophetesses, speaking before and even leading the believers of God.

Answer 3

Do know that the bible was origionally written in an ancient language that is not used today. All the holy books have this problem of incorrect or different translations among different translators. Just like english, many words have alot of differnt meanings thus making it possible for people who are not familiar with the language to misinterpret it. Perhaps this is the case with the verse in corinthians. It is a possibility as it has been studied with other passages. Maybe this particular verse was translated during a period of time when women were opressed and required to not speak unless spoken to and a man translated it as how he wished it to be.

As a woman, I would disregard that verse and suggest it was a misinterpretation. I dont believe any of the monotheistic religions were meant to make women less than men- I believe it was the values of that specific time when it was translated that made it that way.

Answer 4

It is often forgotten that Paul, in his two letters to the Corinthians, was answer questions that they had written to him. Unfortunately, those questions did not survive, and Paul does not repeat them before answering them.

When you read through the entire book of Corinthians, especially the 12-14th chapter where this verse is found, you will find that there were some major issues going on in that church. Paul is writing instruction dealing with the situation within that church. But in the process reveals principles that can be applied everywhere.

For example, he writes about a man who is sleeping with his father's wife. (1 Cor 5) That is a situation unique (hopefully) to this church. Paul gives a specific answer on how to deal with the person - turn him over to satan for the destruction of his flesh. He shows a principle - sometimes the church needs to stop protecting people living in sin and let them experience the consequences of their actions. He not saying we should be praying for any person who sins to be totally destroyed.

In chapter 11 he deals with the fact that the church had become some unruly in its services that people were getting drunk on the communion wine, and pigging out on the bread. Paul told them to eat before the came to service so that they would not be hungry. His principle was to do what needed beforehand so that you could come to service ready to respect the things of God, not that you had to eat a four course meal before you could go to church. See the difference?

When you get to chapter 14, Paul is dealing with problems in which people were interrupting the service to give messages and revelations that they had received. It also appears that some of the women were interrupting with questions.

In the culture of that time, men were educated and women were not. As most of the people in the church at that time were Jewish, the men were familiar with the Torah (Old Testament) and knew and understood many of the scriptures and OT examples the preachers would use. The women were not. So they were interupting the preaching with questions.

What Paul actually tells them, if you read the whole passage in content, is that if a woman has a question, she should be silence during the church service, and to ask her husband about it later at home. At very different things from "women can not talk at all during church".

Answer 5

I think they take the verses out of context. The historical context is that Paul gave those instructions to preserve order in an otherwise loud, rancourous church. Remember that it is to the same Corinthians that he settled the debate between "Paul and Appollo". It is to the same church also that he gives the most detailed instructions on christian worship, marriage, communion etc.--so there will be no wrangling in the church.
I think if there was some other ways in which order could have been maintained Paul would have pursued that.
Remember also that there were women leaders in the bible. The prayer meetings in the House of Cloe etc.
Having said these, if your friends are cofortable with it in their church all well and good. Whether we talk in church or otherwise, does not make us better prepared for heaven. Indeed, it is much better to listen and learn than to risk conflict and divisions in the church

Answer 6

The women in that day were shouting back and forth in the Corinth church and being disruptive so Paul had to address them..Now, if God used a donkey to speak in the old testament, then he can certainly use a woman today. There is also a scripture that says there is no difference in the Spirit(Col. 3:11, Gal 3:28). Some of the most anointed preachers today are women.

Answer 7

I wish I new which verse it was. But I think there are a wide variety of things that may be misinterpreted in the bible. Even simple verses. We also tend to trust every thing the bible says although we know it has been translated through so many languages. It's a tough call but I feel we are just as much blessed with the word of God like any other man. Have you ever heard of Ellen G White? Look it up.

Answer 8

In I Timothy 2:8 says (KJV) "I will therefore that men pray every where, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting" If you look in the original text the word man in this verse refers to mankind, meaning all people. Women are to pray and lift up hands and pray just as men, they shouldn't lead men in prayer or usurp authority over a man. I know of a woman who went into labor early and when she got to the hospital, they tried to stop her labor, the child was born dead. Had she not prayed, as her husband was on his way there, the child would have died. Women must pray and act as godly women as I Timothy goes on to state in chapter 2 verses 9-15. Your friends church takes the statement be silent a little to far. Women should not be on committees or speak up in meetings unless they are told to do so. Hope this is helpful.

Answer 9

First of Paul was speaking to a specific church and the problems they were having....It's not repeated in scripture so it's not a pattern for us to follow. Look at Titus 2:4&5.....it tells the older women are to teach the younger. There are lot's of wonderful women leaders in the Bible, Deborah, Esther, Anna and even the Prophet Joel predicted that God's spirit would fall on ALL people. Men and Women.

Answer 10

That's a very literal church your friends are going to.

With that section there a couple to things in play. 1) In biblical Corinth many women were not educated and God did not want uneducated people (male or female) speaking in church as leaders. 2) in biblical synagoges men were seated separately from women and children and for a wife to ask her husband a question meant a huge disruption of the meeting.

So while I'm not in favor of word for word literal interpretation of the Bible. The sentiment is not as anti-women as it appears on the surface.

Email me if you'd like to talk further.