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violation of Noahide laws, is that government then considered a government that has legislated wrongly. An Orthodox Jew who supports such legislation, would they also be guilty of supporting wickedness?

Please explain your answers with classical Jewish sources, if you are able; or through your own logic if you are not.

Thank you and Chodesh Tov.

2007-03-20 03:23:21 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

One of the Noahide Laws is to establish a system of civil law and justice. Additionally, Jews (and Noahides) must abide by the law of the land, in most cases. Outside of government sponsored idolatry, it is difficult to imagine a case of civil or criminal law in which the Noahide laws do not fit.

Even, say the permissibility of same-sex marriage, though a violation of the Noahide Laws does not require one to enter into a same-sex marriage...so it is easily circumvented. Those following the Noahide laws simply don't do it...and it is not a violation or a condoning of the local law.

Any person, however, who does support such a law is guilty of supporting wickedness....and that is between him and God.

2007-03-20 03:47:24 · answer #1 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0 0

oy. difficult question. yes, you would be guilty of supporting wickedness, HOWEVER, which law contradicts which noahide law?

i suppose it depends on translation of the law that has been passed, and how it affects the jewish community.

if it does not have bearing on the day to day life of a jew, then i somehow doubt you could be guilty of wickedness.

shalom.

2007-03-20 03:31:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I could not have said it any better than mzJakes

2007-03-20 15:08:19 · answer #3 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 0 0

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