"The Immaculate Conception"?

Question

Why do catholics insist that Mary was born without sin? Do they not know the Levitical Law that sin is passed on through the father not the mother. Visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children. Sins of the fathers being passed down to the third and fourth generations. It has nothing to do with the mother, and everything to do with the father.

Answer 1

When did that Church get anything right? Please. Mary is their biggest source of income. Make her into a God and the money just pours in.
However, the chromosome that is at fault for ageing and death comes from the Father, not the Mother. Mom cannot pass on that chromosome, only dad. So Mary was a great woman, but imperfect. Whereas Jesus was perfect in the sense that he did not inherit that chromosome from mortal man. He inherited it from God himself.

Answer 2

Yes, but Catholics don't follow Levitical Law. And even if you look in the Gospels, you will find people asking Jesus if it was the PARENTS' sin or the man's which caused him to be blind. So it sounds to me like even Jews of that day and age didn't "get" the law completely.

As for today, this teaching was created to help ward off claims that Jesus couldn't possibly be God because he was touched by sin in such an intimate way. My question is, does it really matter? Does it change the nature of God or Jesus? Does it hurt anything? People putting Mary above her station is one thing, (and not a good thing, at that), but that's not what the Immaculate Conception is about.

Answer 3

To say Mary was born without sin is blasphemphy,as the Bible stresses that Christ ALONE was without sin.That is why He,and not Mary,is the Saviour.The idea of Mary as the Immaculate Conception is very un-Biblical.It also takes away the importance of Christ's role and makes Mary holy in a way that only Jesus is.Any Catholic who says Mary was sinless must back it up with Biblical proof.Otherwise that belief is invalid.Another problem:some Catholics say Jesus could not have been born pure from a sinful woman.But then how could Mary be pure unless her parents were also sinless?And theirs before them,and before,and before...So we'd all be holy and none would need a saviour.Sorry,just does'nt work for me.

Answer 4

It’s important to understand what the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception is and what it is not. Some people think the term refers to Christ’s conception in Mary’s womb without the intervention of a human father; but that is the Virgin Birth. Others think the Immaculate Conception means Mary was conceived "by the power of the Holy Spirit," in the way Jesus was, but that, too, is incorrect. The Immaculate Conception means that Mary, whose conception was brought about the normal way, was conceived without original sin or its stain—that’s what "immaculate" means: without stain. The essence of original sin consists in the deprivation of sanctifying grace, and its stain is a corrupt nature. Mary was preserved from these defects by God’s grace; from the first instant of her existence she was in the state of sanctifying grace and was free from the corrupt nature original sin brings.

Answer 5

Not the sins but the corporal effects of sins are tranfered from parents to the children but Islam says all the chidren including Mary and Jesus were born pure and chaste and full faculties to practice Islam-the religion of God sent messages throughout the ages.This is the biggest message of hope, reliving everyone from the whimsical fears created by catholic clergy.Have never notice that all newborn are free and happy having glowing radience of purity and innocence, unless some genetic deffects inherted by them due to sins of their parents.

Answer 6

while you have manyother answers.... i just wanted to say - THANK YOU. thank you for at least knowing that the Immaculate Conception is about Mary and not Jesus. too many people think it's the overshadowning of Mary by the Holy Spirit.

on the question.... i believe that God can do anything HE chooses and do not believe for a moment, He would put new wine (Jesus Christ) into an old wine skin (sinful Mary).

Answer 7

There is no such thing! The Bible states that all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God except for of course Jesus. Mary was born with sin and so was her father and mother. God chose Mary not because she was perfect but to perform a miracle from a humble and lowly human.

Answer 8

And do you suppose that God is bound by Levitical Law?? Mary's freedom from the effects of sinfulness, that she might be a fitting mother to God Himself, was a direct act of God, not something she inherited from either of her parents. Keep in mind that for most of the history of Christianity you would not be saying "Catholics insist" on such truths. You would be saying "Christians insist" on such truths, since from Apostolic times until the beginning of the plague of denominationalism, "Catholic" and "Christian" were simply synonyms. Therefore to reject this truth is to reject what every Christian on earth knew to be revealed truth for 1,500 years, and to buy into modern traditions of men.
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Answer 9

I believe that Leviticus was specific laws for the Levites, who were priests. According to the Bible, can a son be punished for sins committed by his father? The Bible provides a very clear answer to this: "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin" (Deut. 24:16).

Answer 10

Jesus merits of his crucifixion were applied to Mary at her Conception. Gabriel said " Hail, --Full of grace". How can you be full of grace and have sin? Why do people have this animosity towards the Blessed Virgin? Is it because God said in Genesis to Satan "I will put enmity between you and the woman"? For this reason, does Jesus call his Mother woman....to bring attention to the fact that this is the woman proclaimed in Genesis whose seed would step on the head of the serpent