I am not interested in what the pope said,I want to know what God has said.
I am not interested in what the church has said,I want to know what the Bible said.
If you can'y provide scripture please don't waste your time or mine answering.I am not interested in the doctrines of men and devils,but only the truth which is found in the word of God.
2007-03-19 07:05:17 · 15 answers · asked by don_steele54 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
CHURCHMU...You should read your Bible and see what it says about the doctrines of men.I will give you an example:
"Now the Spirit speaketh exspressly,that in the latter time some shall depart from the faith,giving heed to seducing spirits,and doctrines of devils; Speaking lies and hypocisy;having their conscience seared with a hot iron;Forbidding to marry,and comanding to abstain from meats,which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving OF THEM WHICH BELIEVE AND KNOW THE TRUTH."
1 Timothy 4:1-3 These be those who have made up their man made doctrines.Remind you of anybody you know?
2007-03-19 07:42:49 · update #1
JAN, I got this idea from the catholics.I totally disagree with it.But, I think they should either provide scripture for their teaching or be exsposed for teaching a false doctrine.
2007-03-19 07:50:11 · update #2
CARETAKE, I know Jesus was immaculaley conceived But for some reason the catholics think Mary was to.
2007-03-19 08:05:32 · update #3
KNIGHTOF, Your grabbing at straws,Jesus also called the woman who was caught in the act of adultery. "WOMAN ,were are thine accusers? John 8:10c I appreciate your effort and Mary was a blessed woman.But all those who are called of God are blessed are they not.Jesus was the only one who was born without sin because He took only from Mary the nature of man, not of her flesh.Jesus was the word and was begotten of the Father.Mary was a vessel in Gods hands.She was a handmaid as was Hagar to Abraham and Sarah.Ishmael was just as much Sarahs son as he was Abrahams.Hagar was a vessel used by its owner Sarah."And Sarai said unto Abram,.......I pray thee go in unto my (maid);it may be that I may obtain children by her,..." Gen. 16:2 . Ishmael did not belong to Hagar.He belonged to Abraham and Sarah.Hagar was a haidmaid as was Mary.Jesus did not belong to Joseph or Mary , but was the only begotten Son of God.And that is who Jesus belonged to,God!
2007-03-19 08:27:14 · update #4
MISTY 040, Congradulations on being a catholic.You said a lot and never used one scripture.
2007-03-19 08:31:35 · update #5
BIG BANG, No such book in the Bible.
2007-03-19 13:05:41 · update #6
All flesh sins, so I have no idea where you got the idea that Mary was without sin.
If you are interested in the Word of God, and not the doctrine of men, then thats great, and I commend you - but you need to get into that Word. You do not know who\
caused the Christ child to be conceived?
I think I will let you open the Bible and read it; you are awfully brasen for a person who does not know the answer to this simple question. look it up yourself.
2007-03-19 07:11:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Everything is not in the Bible.
Take the Trinity for instance...never mentioned.
Also, you'll never find a place where Jesus specifically gives priests/pastors the authority to preside over marriages...but they do.
Also, the Bible never says...anywhere...that IT is the only authority.
The Catholic Church was functioning as a church prior to the Bible being written and compiled. This puts the Church in a unique position that Protestants cannot claim.
There are many things that the Church knows to be true that are not written specifically in the Bible...but neither are they spoken against in the Bible. The writers of scripture were often writing to people of the day or writing what they knew to be true. They don't know at the time that there will be a reformation and they'll need to clarify all the things that "every Christian at the time" KNEW to be the truth.
The doctrine of Mary's immaculate conception is something that has been adheared to by the faithful and can be traced back to the early Christians. The Catholic Church only finally made it dogma in the 20th Century...but it had been believed for a long time.
The Immaculate conception does not go against the Bible or God in any way does it? Nothing the Church does ever goes against the Bible. But Bible Christians want everything written down...why? Even when you point out that the things they believe are not all written....such as the Trinity, the Bible as the ONLY authority...etc. and so forth.
Maybe you should police your own beliefs before trying to police others. The Catholic faith is over 2000 years old. It has not changed (in core belief) in that 2000 years. The heads of our Church are extremely educated in Theology, Religions, languages, ancient history and tongues....they do not just make stuff up!
2007-03-19 07:26:22 · answer #2 · answered by Misty 7 · 3⤊ 1⤋
I know what you are referring to - that Mary was conceived without sin. But as usual, you have it all wrong.
No one has ever said that she was not conceived in the normal way - an earthly father and mother - but that she was conceived without the stain of original sin.
No, that is not explicitly in the Bible. Neither is Sola Scripture, or Trinity, or the word Bible. Not to mention that NONE of the NT was written down while Jesus was alive, which means that when it was written, it came from ORAL Tradition, which you also rail against. I guess you'd better throw out the gospels for sure, since they came from oral tradition.
If you want to believe that God would send our Savior into the world through a sinful body, go right ahead.
Geesh.
2007-03-19 07:33:41 · answer #3 · answered by SpiritRoaming 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
KJV Holy Bible Ralf !6: 21-22 Behold the Holy mother Mary was conceived by the Holy Spirit having not been touched by the breath of sins of mankind.
2007-03-19 12:54:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Luke 1:26-38 In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth, (27) to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary. (28) And he came to her and said, "Hail, O favored one, the Lord is with you!" (29) But she was greatly troubled at the saying, and considered in her mind what sort of greeting this might be. (30) And the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God. (31) And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus. (32) He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David, (33) and he will reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there will be no end." (34) And Mary said to the angel, "How shall this be, since I have no husband?" (35) And the angel said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God. (36) And behold, your kinswoman Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son; and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren. (37) For with God nothing will be impossible." (38) And Mary said, "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word." And the angel departed from her.
2007-03-19 07:10:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Who said Mary was without sin? Mary was a human being, descendant from Adam and Eve, therefore a sinner. It is interesting though that the chromosome accused of making humans die, is passed on from the male, not the female. Nowhere in the Bible is it said that Mary was without sin. Catholics can't get anything right.
2007-03-19 07:18:00 · answer #6 · answered by Starjumper the R&S Cow 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
What makes you think Mary was sinless? It would seem not since she said she needed a savior in Luke 1:47, "And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior." She didn't stay a virgin after the birth of Christ. Matt. 1:25 says that Joseph, ". . .kept her a virgin until she gave birth to a Son; and he called His name Jesus."
Original Sin is passed on by Men, so Jesus was without Sin as he had no earthly father.
2007-03-19 07:29:31 · answer #7 · answered by Sternchen 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
The Holy Ghost placed the child in her womb....
--Matthew 1:20--
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
2007-03-19 07:09:01 · answer #8 · answered by ? 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Mary was not without sin. she was not immaculately conceived. she had an earthly mom and dad just like everyone else. the bible says she was to be blessed among women. Luke 1:28 "and the angel in came unto her, and said, hail, thou art highly favored, the Lord is with thee: blessed thou art among women."
Luke 1:30 "...fear not, Mary for thou hast found favor with God."
you are correct to say there is not scripture saying Mary was sinless. it does not exist because it was not so. that is some doctrine drummed up by man to make Mary into something she was not. she was not the sinless savior. she was the vessel in which the God chose to bring the savior into the world thus giving him his connection with humanity.
humanity that was necessary in order to suffer in the same manner as we do, yet with out sin. he is acquainted with our grief because he was human and is our advocate to God the father because he is God's son.
2007-03-19 07:26:36 · answer #9 · answered by cwfraggle 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Mathhew 1:20
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
2007-03-19 07:11:28 · answer #10 · answered by Jesus is the Way 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋