And what would the point have been?
2007-03-19 01:22:56 · 12 answers · asked by Tanya Pants 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
ahh the good ol days.
i guess it was only fornication if you were a woman or
if you included another mans wife\concubine in your orgy.
2007-03-19 01:28:03 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Fornication was, and still is, any sexual act between two people who are not married to each other. Even if you allow multiple wives, that is still different from having sex with a neighbor's wife, or casual sex with some stranger you pick up off the street.
2007-03-19 01:29:52 · answer #2 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Responsibility! If a man was willing to take a woman on as a wife and to be responsible to provide for her needs for the rest of her life then she would be his wife. If not it was fornication. Also if it took place before marriage it would be considered fornication.
2007-03-19 01:30:30 · answer #3 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Fornication is indulging in sexual activity before a person is married. Whereas, adultry is the activity after marriage with another partner.
The point is with the time culture and value systey changes. We can not understand the concept of marriage of the past with our present mind set.
2007-03-20 00:42:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anuj P1952 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
God never authorized men to have several wives in the Old Testament, so they committed adultery when they took subsequent wives after the first. This seems to have been conveniently overlooked by the vast majority of men during that time.
By Jesus' time, men routinely only took one wife, having figured out that God made Adam and Eve, not Adam, Eve, Jane and Kathy. However, many engaged in "serial divorce": when a man tired of his wife, he simply divorced her. Jesus rebuked these and told them they were committing adultery.
2007-03-19 01:34:44 · answer #5 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
God allowed a lot of things he didn't like.
He eventually did make clear guidlines concerning sexual immorality through the his Son's apostles.
By the way, their admonitions are mostly rewrites of what is found in the old testament, so they didn't make no real big changes anyway.
2007-03-19 01:40:31 · answer #6 · answered by rangedog 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
in the Old Testament fornification would be when you had sexual relations outside of a lifelong heterosexual marriage commitment
as far as multiple wives... there are no examples of happy marriages in the old testament where there were multiple wives and even SOloman who had zillions of wives wrote his long song about only one of them
There is a place for "My one and only" and is doesnt leave room for others
2007-03-19 01:29:49 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Remember, the OT only applies when the Christians decide it applies. For example, Adam and Eve and Moses. Any other time, it does not apply (like when it talks about wrathful and angry god).
Its why Christians get called hypocrites.
2007-03-19 01:38:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, because from the beginning it was set up so a man can have many women so he could spread his seed..just look at our Monkey ancestors, this is the reason so many men cant keep monogamous now, they feel a primal instinct to be with many women, but times have changed (in some places at least).
2007-03-19 01:37:54 · answer #9 · answered by Diana 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋
If you regarded it as a chore it was just sex. If you actually enjoyed it then it was fornicating.
2007-03-19 01:39:45 · answer #10 · answered by U-98 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋