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It appears the crying is more aloud when the pain is more. Is there a direct relation between the two? And what about those who are physically unable to cry? Do they suffer the pain more?

2007-03-18 21:30:55 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Medicine

2 answers

Crying out in pain is simply a reaction of alarm to being startled, not necessarily pain -- because if you're expecting the pain, you can generally control your reactive manifestation of it.

As for crying, there is a very subjective component to pain, with a neurochemical basis. For example, women in general have higher pain threshold than men, which is thought to be an evolutionary pattern to accomodate the greater pain of childbirthing labor. But it doesn't mean necessarily that they suffer more, but is more of their subjective expression of the pain -- because even though women have greater pain threshold, crying is often attributed to their suffering, which is just an expression, not really a quantitative measure.

2007-03-19 10:39:32 · answer #1 · answered by citizen insane 5 · 0 0

Well, one day I applied the wrong stuff to the wrong spot. A lot of pain. I decided to husk grunt moan and make weird comments as I danced around. Why did I do this? I guess to feel more alive. I think those unable to do this would suffer more. It the nerve endings I think.

2007-03-18 21:45:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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