But gays can and do get married in several countries now so it prove the Bible is wrong and once more out of touch with today's world , The Bible is an ancient and now very kitsch anachronism.
2007-03-18 19:01:37
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answer #1
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answered by CHEESUS GROYST 5
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First of all the bible tells you that God made Adam a companion a woman. Genesis 2:22 - 24. 1st Corinthians 6:9-11 Tells how you will not enter the kingdom of heaven if you commit acts of homosexuality. That's what a gay person is correct? So how much more proof do you need. How many words do you have to have it spelled out for you? If you are not allowed to be gay, what makes you think it is ok to get married? Think about it.
2007-03-18 22:31:58
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answer #2
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answered by curiosity 4
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I am not a regular Bible reader, but I do remember the story in the Old Testament about Lot and how a people were destroyed for their acts. Other than this, I have no idea if it denounces gays getting married.
I hope you find the answer to your question.
2007-03-18 22:27:59
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answer #3
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answered by real talk 2
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It doesn't say gays cannot marry. There are at least three same-sex relationships in the Bible that sound like they are much more than just friendships. One of the most intimate relationships in the Bible is between two men:
"And it came to pass, when he had made an end of speaking unto Saul, that the soul of Jonathan was knit with the soul of David, and Jonathan loved him as his own soul." -1 Samuel 18
Now that is close relationship. What makes it even more extraordinary is that this was their first meeting. Some people point to Genesis 2:24 to argue that God only meant for man and women to be married: "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." (KJV) In Genesis they merely become one flesh, but David and Jonathan's souls are knit together to become one soul. If two becoming one in the flesh is a marriage, then how much greater it must be for two to become one in the soul.
"And Jonathan made a covenant with David because he loved him as himself. Jonathan took off the robe he was wearing and gave it to David, along with his tunic, and even his sword, his bow and his belt." (NIV) -1 Samuel 18:3-4
What is this covenant that Jonathan makes with David because he loves him so much? Couldn't marriage be considered a covenant of love? Notice too that Jonathan strips naked in front of David. That would have been highly unusual unless they had a very close relationship.
"And Michal Saul's daughter loved David: and they told Saul, and the thing pleased him."
"And Saul said, I will give him her, that she may be a snare to him, and that the hand of the Philistines may be against him. Wherefore Saul said to David, Thou shalt this day be my son in law in the one of the twain." -1 Samuel 18:20-21
It would seem that David's first opportunity to be a son-in-law was with the older daughter Merab (which was turned down), and his second was with the younger daughter Michal. The KJV preserves the original text in its clearest form; it implies that David would become Saul's son-in-law through "one of the twain." "Twain" means "two", so the verse seems to refer to one of Saul's two daughters. Unfortunately, this is a mistranslation. The phrase "the one of" does not exist in the Hebrew original. The words are shown in italics in the King James Version; this is an admission by the translators that they made the words up. Thus, if the KJV translators had been truly honest, they would have written:
"Thou shalt this day be my son-in-law, in the twain."
In modern English, this might be written: "Today, you are son-in-law with two of my children" That would refer to both his son Jonathan and his daughter Michal. The KJV highlight their re-writing of the Hebrew original by placing the three words in italics.
"And as soon as the lad was gone, David arose out of a place toward the south, and fell on his face to the ground, and bowed himself three times: and they kissed one another, and wept one with another, until David exceeded." -1 Samuel 20:41
The Living Bible translation of this verse demonstrates how easy it is for people to change the Bible to fit their own personal homophobia. Apparently, the Living Bible translators could not handle the thought of two men kissing so they changed the verse:
"and they sadly shook hands, tears running down their cheeks until David could weep no more." (Living Bible)
They shook hands? No they didn't! Every other translation states that they kissed! And some people still believe that the Bible is inerrant and cannot be changed. Whatever.
"I grieve for you, Jonathan my brother; you were very dear to me. Your love for me was wonderful, more wonderful than that of women." -2 Samuel 1:26
Why does David compare his love for Jonathan to that of a woman?
David did have relationships with women, so if this relationship was more than friendship, then David was probably bi-sexual. Jonathan, on the other hand, had no other love interest in the Bible.
Two other very close same-sex relationships in the Bible are between Ruth and Naomi in the Book of Ruth, & Daniel and Ashpenaz in the Book of Daniel. Daniel and Ashpenaz were both eunuchs. I won't go into who the eunuchs were, but if you want more information on them you can look here: http://www.well.com/user/aquarius/contents.htm
EDIT: Oh, and for those that cite Matthew 19:4, if you had bothered to keep reading you would have seen that Jesus makes specific exceptions to that. Again, follow the link above and read about who the eunuchs really were and you will know why that exception is important, and why Jesus says that not everyone can accept his statement.
2007-03-18 23:04:22
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answer #4
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answered by Wisdom in Faith 4
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Our Creator established rules governing marriage long before governments began regulating the institution. The opening book of the Bible tells us: “A man will leave his father and his mother and he must stick to his wife and they must become one flesh.” (Genesis 2:24) The Hebrew word “wife,” according to Vine’s Expository Dictionary of Biblical Words, “connotes one who is a female human being.” Jesus confirmed that those yoked together in marriage should be “male and female.”—Matthew 19:4.
Thus, God intended marriage to be a permanent and an intimate bond between a man and a woman. Men and women are designed to complement each other so they may be capable of satisfying each other’s emotional, spiritual, and sexual needs and desires.
The well-known Biblical account of Sodom and Gomorrah reveals God’s feelings about homosexuality. God declared: “The cry of complaint about Sodom and Gomorrah, yes, it is loud, and their sin, yes, it is very heavy.” (Genesis 18:20) The extent of their sinful depravity at that time was apparent when two guests visited the righteous man Lot. “The men of Sodom . . . surrounded the house, from boy to old man, all the people in one mob. And they kept calling out to Lot and saying to him: ‘Where are the men who came in to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may have intercourse with them.’” (Genesis 19:4, 5) The Bible says: “The men of Sodom were bad and were gross sinners against Jehovah.”—Genesis 13:13.
The men became “violently inflamed in their lust toward one another, males with males.” (Romans 1:27) They had “gone out after flesh for unnatural use.” (Jude 7) In countries where homosexual rights campaigns are pervasive, some may object to using the word “unnatural” to describe homosexual behavior. However, is not God the final arbiter when it comes to nature? He commanded his ancient people: “You must not lie down with a male the same as you lie down with a woman. It is a detestable thing.”— Leviticus 18:22.
2007-03-18 22:26:02
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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I think we should first address the issue of is being gay okay with God. That would be a no. That would come under the heading of any scriptures that say that thou shalt not have sexual immoralities, fornicators, etc. Since it is not in God's Will for there to be gays at all, I think it goes without saying that they cannot be married. May God Bless U.
2007-03-18 22:27:57
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Where in the Bible it says that human cannot marry an animal?
Where in the Bible it says that man cannot marry a car?
Where in the Bible it says that girl cannot marry a diamond?
Where in the Bible it says that a pet canot marry another pet?
Where in the Bible it says that we should wipe our butts after the business?
Where in the Bible it says that we need to celebrate one's anniversary?
Chapter and verse. : )
2007-03-18 22:26:59
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answer #7
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answered by SeeTheLight 7
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Probably not...but it does say homosexuality is an abomination....so one would assume God wouldn't approve of married homosexuals either. It also says a time is coming when what is good will be called evil (Christianity...seems to be a trend lately)...and what is evil will be called good (homosexuality....for one thing).
Just so you know...I have empathy for your walk in life (assuming you are a homosexual)...I am sure it must be difficult...but we don't make the rules...God does...but God does call us to love...so I have no animosity towards you...but I can not tell you that homosexuality is alright....because God says it isn't...
2007-03-18 22:23:56
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answer #8
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answered by ticklemeblue 5
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It does not say that at all. Leviticus was written specifically for the Levites.
2007-03-18 22:21:31
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answer #9
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answered by Justsyd 7
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Read Mark 10:6-9.
Notice that a man and a woman are mentioned. Not a man and a man or a woman and a woman.
2007-03-18 22:22:01
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answer #10
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answered by great gig in the sky 7
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