While there is no clear-cut example of demon possession in the Old Testament as we understand it in the New testament, there is a myriad of examples of the influence of demonic works in the acts and lifes if many Old Testament individuals, The maddness of Saul, the fall of Nebuchadnezzer and The roll of Ahab and too many others to mention here. If you read the Bible you learn that God gives it to us warts and all. The work of God and the influence of Evil. It is there from Genesis through Malachi.
2007-03-18 15:10:08
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answer #1
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answered by s. grant 4
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The Old and the New Testaments are two different things. The Old Testament is what we call "the Scripture", which is divided into certain categories:
Pentateuch - 5 books of Moses: Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy
Historical Books - 12 books: Joshua, Judges, Ruth, First Samuel, Second Samuel, First Kings, Second Kings, First Chronicles, Second Chronicles, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther.
Poetic books- 5 books: Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Song of Solomon
Prophetic books- 17 books: Major Prophets - Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lamentations, Ezekiel, Daniel; Minor Prophets - Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi.
The purpose of those books is different than the purpose of the Books of the New Testament.
There was a demonic possession in the times of the Old Testament (because Christ actually walked on Earth and demonic possession was something very common, as you can see). However, nobody could fight the demonic possession, but God alone, and so Christ shows that He is God, when He heals the sick, raises the dead and delivers people from the demons.
2007-03-18 14:25:17
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answer #2
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answered by Kalistrat 4
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King Saul, after rebelling against the LORD, was allowed to be troubled by an evil spirit (1 Samuel 16:14-15; 18:10-11; 19:9-10) with the apparent effect of a depressed mood and an increased desire and readiness to kill David.
2007-03-18 15:38:29
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answer #3
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answered by Freedom 7
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There are 400 years between the Old and New Testaments. During that time the Greeks, then the Romans took over the known world, including the Middle East. Jews were influenced by the beliefs of both and demon possession became widely believed.
2007-03-18 14:17:51
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answer #4
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answered by Prof Fruitcake 6
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good question! We are first introduced to these beings in the OT, and they influenced and tempted humans, but I can't recall demon possession. However, we know that demons procreated w/ humans, but now they don't. We know that human beings coexist with these fallen angels, so maybe as man got more depraved, these beings became more powerful over some of them. Remember, in a way, we are above the angels. They are here to minister to all humans. The fallen ones are insane, hateful beings that only want our utter destruction. They are insane because they beheld the glory of God and His creation and still they rebelled. They hate us because they are filled with jealousy. Salvation through Jesus Christ is only for human beings. Anyway, check out this website www.gotquestions.org
2007-03-18 14:26:12
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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My king James doesn't have the word demon in Old or New Testament..I assume you're referring to a verse like the following that uses the word devil:
Mat 12:24 But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, This fellow doth not cast out devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils.
In the original Greek the word used there for "devil" is "δαιμόνιον" or "daimonion" which means :
a daemonic being; by extension a deity: - devil, god.
Having a "devil" didn't make you evil..it made you afflicted..in other words these "devils" would torment people.
Devils or the devil is most certainly referenced to in the Old Testament... wasn't it a or the devil that tempted Adam and eve leading to the consumtion of the seed of sin in the fruit that lead to their (and our) deaths? Wasn't Job tormented by the or a "devil" (Satan, Baelzebub are synonymous). Righteous Lott was vexed with unclean speech, and the lepers throughout history of the old Testament
Those are just a few examples that are easily justified with understanding.
There are devils nowadays too...what is now refered to as epilepsy, palsy, mute, blind, deaf, insanity would all fit the descriptions of the various types of devils or demons that would afflict people and that Christ cast out of them. these people weren't evil they were tormented. Here's an example of one that mimicks identically epileptic seizures..
(Mat 17:15) Lord, have mercy on my son: for he is lunatic, and sore vexed: for ofttimes he falleth into the fire, and oft into the water.
(Mat 17:16) And I brought him to thy disciples, and they could not cure him.
(Mat 17:17) Then Jesus answered and said, O faithless and perverse generation, how long shall I be with you? how long shall I suffer you? bring him hither to me.
(Mat 17:18) And Jesus rebuked the devil; and he departed out of him: and the child was cured from that very hour.
deaf and blind devil...
Mat 12:22 Then was brought unto him one possessed with a devil, blind, and dumb: and he healed him, insomuch that the blind and dumb both spake and saw.
If being blind or deaf by a devil made you evil by default...then they would have had no protection in OT law:
Lev 19:14 Thou shalt not curse the deaf, nor put a stumblingblock before the blind, but shalt fear thy God: I am the LORD.
Deu 27:18 Cursed be he that maketh the blind to wander out of the way. And all the people shall say, Amen.
What you didn't see in the OT was people (at that time) curing or casting out opponents or devils...but it was just not time yet..
(Isa 35:5) Then the eyes of the blind shall be opened, and the ears of the deaf shall be unstopped.
(Isa 35:6) Then shall the lame man leap as a hart, and the tongue of the dumb sing: for in the wilderness shall waters break out, and streams in the desert.
EDIT: it is also interesting to note that the word used for "devil" in the OT means:
a daemon (as malignant): - devil.
Doctors still use the term "malignant" to describe certain diseases and/or cancers. I doubt that anyone with a malignant tumor would argue that they are indeed, afflicted with it.
2007-03-18 15:07:29
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Excellent and interesting question!
I don't have an answer for that.
Perhaps its because the Old Testament speaks of God's relationship with the Jews who followed God's Laws and were most of the time separated from among the heathens and idol worshipers.
God said to stay away from witchcraft, soothsayers and divination, etc. so they did.
2007-03-18 14:23:41
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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Because the New Testament was written 500 years later according to different men with a different message. The NT empathized the need of a savior, therefor they put in the possessions.
2007-03-18 14:16:36
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answer #8
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answered by Justsyd 7
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If I were the Devil and Jesus was just born, I think I would crank it up a knotch and start possessing people with demons.
This is just a guess, no one really knows for a fact, besides that people were demon posessed so that they could be cured by Jesus or by his deciples in the name of Jesus, and by being cured, many would believe in Jesus.
2007-03-18 14:21:46
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answer #9
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answered by Lord_French_Fry 3
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Because after Gods plan to save the world by sacrificing His only Son...Satan and His demons were pretty pissed off.
2007-03-18 15:45:01
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answer #10
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answered by nellie 2
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