2007-03-17 23:11:36 · 8 answers · asked by ssunderagarwal 4 in Business & Finance ➔ Taxes ➔ India
Hi! You have posted a very interesting question. There is no such explanation in the IT Act. But as per the basic judgement the problem can be solved taking the reference of other provisions of the Act.
As per various judgements of High courts and Supreme court, the intention of the assessee has to be seen. Over here the intention of the assessee is to avoid tax. Also since the spouces are co-owner of the property both have equal right to enjoy the property. No one is bound to pay rent to the other spouce. Even if the spouce were not the co-owner, the payment of rent to spouce is not acceptable in normal cource except in case of living apart. It is permissible to pay rent to father or mother or brother if u stay in their house but not to the spouce.
Hope it is helps you in your tax planning.
Bye.
2007-03-19 00:01:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
2
2016-07-18 19:15:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can only take a deduction once. So, the deduction you get as a married couple is it. Unless you your wife runs a business, and you are her employee. But even the deduction you get for having an office space in your home is different than you being able to pay your legal spouse rent for a home you own? Do see how illogical that is?
2007-03-17 23:16:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
husbend & wife both us a equal share in a flat. so wife salary also claim.
2007-03-17 23:31:11 · answer #4 · answered by john a 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
for wife's part of share
2007-03-18 22:47:39 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes he can claim.otherwise wife will be expending in costmatic goods.
2007-03-17 23:34:49 · answer #6 · answered by miles 2 miles _ 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Authorisation will help.
2007-03-17 23:14:30 · answer #7 · answered by Rocket 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2007-03-21 01:05:38 · answer #8 · answered by robert F 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋