serfdom during the Enlightenment?

Question

could anyone answer this question?

-How did serfdom differ in Eastern Europe and Western Europe during the Enlightenment?

please, anyone, answer to this question...

Answer 1

"Enlightenment" was a word directed at western Europe. Therefore they were enlightened for a reason. Part of this reason was that they pretty much got rid of serfdom during this time and society was beginning to shape like what we have now. People no longer worked for no pay, and it was possible for people borne of a lower class to rise to glory.

However, in Eastern Europe serfdom still existed like they did in the Middle Ages, Feudalism still survived, and peasants were still bound to lords and worked like slaves in return for protection from enemies. As time passed by this slowly disappered as well, but at the time of the "Enlightment" Eastern Europe was still a Feudalist society with serfs.

Answer 2

I believe eastern Europe remained "ancient" and its poor/servants were pretty badly off. In western Europe, however, I think the idea of caste and class was being viewed differently and it was more possible for people of low class to rise into success.