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Is this dealing with not usurping authority over the male?
The woman is created to be a help mate for her spouse, different roles, but equal in importance and respect. Just as man is subject to Christ. I would appreciate any sincere comments to help me with this study. Thanks!

2007-03-16 17:21:03 · 22 answers · asked by Terbo 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

22 answers

In Bible times men and women used to sit on opposite sides of a room during church services. Often times they didn't understand what was being said as most women were not educated and would yell to their husbands for explanations during the preaching. This was simply a way to keep order and quiet in the sanctuary while teaching was going on. The women were instructed to ask their husbands later for the meanings.

2007-03-16 17:25:32 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Back then women were not educated and would sit and talk to each other and not listen to what was going on. Also the women were not considered as knowledgeable as the men. And there were times when women were dangerous to be around because they were ritually unclean (from Jewish law perspective which carried over to the new church) and so on. None of this has any bearing on the role of women today. Some branches of the Christian church get confused about this and try to make women second class citizens, but they are just plain WRONG.

2007-03-16 17:28:07 · answer #2 · answered by tonks_op 7 · 1 0

It means that women are to keep silent in church. Women are not to preach or lead the congragation in prayer. May I sugest some books?

Blue Denim And Lace by Dr. Jack Hyles

Jack Hyles on Justice

Created To Be His Help Meet by Debi Pearl

2007-03-16 17:28:09 · answer #3 · answered by tas211 6 · 0 0

Have you watched the divinci code. If not, you should. You dont have to accept it all as fact, but do believe that there has been sexism in the church for a long time when Paul himself said:

(Rom 2:10) But all who do right will be rewarded with glory, honor, and peace, whether they are Jews or Gentiles.

(Rom 2:11) God doesn't have any favorites!

(1Co 14:34) the women must not be allowed to speak. They must keep quiet and listen, as the Law of Moses teaches.

(1Co 14:35) If there is something they want to know, they can ask their husbands when they get home. It is disgraceful for women to speak in church.

2007-03-16 17:38:26 · answer #4 · answered by its_whatever11 3 · 0 1

The direction from the apostle Paul, who wrote the book, was about women trying to teach spiritual things to men.
(1 CORINTHIANS 11:3) “But I want YOU to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn the head of a woman is the man; in turn the head of the Christ is God.”
Through the Bible, Jesus Christ teaches men, and men teach the women.
This teaching is not connected with women sharing worldly decisions with their men, such as where to live or what to purchase.

2007-03-16 17:31:08 · answer #5 · answered by pugjw9896 7 · 1 0

1 TIMOTHY 2:12
In Paul’s reference to women listening and learning quietly and submissively, he is speaking about an attitude of quietness and composure (not total silence). In addition, Paul himself acknowledges that women publicly prayed and prophesied (1 Corinthians 11:5). Apparently, however, the women in the Ephesian church were abusing their newly acquired Christian freedom. Because these women were new converts, they did not yet have the necessary experience, knowledge, or Christian maturity to teach those who already had extensive scriptural education.

2007-03-16 17:28:57 · answer #6 · answered by djm749 6 · 1 0

Surprise! The bible was written or compiled by men who decided what text they should put in it. Yes, it means that women are no supposed to have power or be involved with church business.

It was written so that women you solely worship God and not have any power over any part of church. However, in this day and time, women are taking over t he church again which I believe is really where we should be.

Remember, women were thought of as 2nd class citizens and were disposable human beings during the time that the Bible was compiled.

2007-03-16 17:30:14 · answer #7 · answered by duncanchild7 3 · 0 1

It was directed to a specific time and place to deal with specific circumstances.

Here is a link to a 1 hour 5 minute AUDIO lesson on the subject. It is well worth a listen.

http://highlandchurch.org/dl/32.mp3

2007-03-16 17:26:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

1 Tim 2:11 As far as her part in public meetings of the church, a woman is to learn in silence with all submission. This is consistent with the rest of Scripture on this subject (1Co_11:3-15; 1Co_14:34-35).

1 Tim 2:12 When Paul says: I do not permit a woman to teach, he is speaking as inspired of God. This does not represent Paul's own personal prejudice, as some say. It is God who decrees that women should not have a public teaching ministry in the church. The only exceptions to this are that they are permitted to teach children (2Ti_3:15) and young women (Tit_2:4). Neither is a woman to have authority over a man. That means that she must not have dominion over a man, but is to be in silence or quietness. The latter part of this verse is by no means limited to the local assembly. It is a fundamental principle in God's dealings with mankind that man has been given the headship and that woman is in the place of subjection. This does not mean that she is inferior; that is certainly not true. But it does mean that it is contrary to God's will that the woman should have authority or dominion over the man.

1 Tim 2:13 To prove his point, Paul first of all goes to the creation of Adam and Eve. Adam was formed first, then Eve. The very order of the creation was significant. By creating man first, God intended him to be the head, the one who would exercise direction, the one who would have authority. The fact that woman was created second means that she should be in submission to her husband. By basing his argument on the order of creation, Paul rules out any thought that this is a matter of local culture.

1 Tim 2:14 The second proof refers to the entrance of sin into the human race. Instead of approaching Adam directly, the serpent went to Eve with his temptations and lies. According to God's intention, Eve should not have acted independently. She should have gone to Adam and put the matter before him. Instead of that, she allowed herself to be deceived by Satan and fell into transgression.

In this connection, it is noteworthy that false teachers today usually visit homes when the wife is most apt to be there alone, that is, when the husband will most probably be away at work.

Adam was not deceived. It appears that he sinned with his eyes open. There are those who suggest that when he saw that his wife had already fallen into sin, he wanted to maintain his unity with her, and so he himself plunged into sin. But the Scriptures do not state this. They merely state that the woman was deceived, but that Adam was not.

2007-03-16 17:37:50 · answer #9 · answered by Ask Mr. Religion 6 · 1 1

haha i wondered the same thing - i asked my theolgoy teacher this question and he said that during this time, they were dealing with a specific problem to that church; women were getting up and disrupting the church service.

- it wasn't meaning that women can't be used of God in the church setting - nor could they carry the Word or prophecy. look at mary - she was the first person to carry the Word, and she carried Him for 9 months !! :D
-- and pricilla, dorcus, pheobe - all of these were new testiment women who were used of God.

but yes the women is to be submitted to the husband, just like the husband is submitted to God. :D

2007-03-16 17:29:01 · answer #10 · answered by ELM 2 · 1 0

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