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2007-03-15 09:47:26 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

16 answers

Yes it does, all the time. However, you need to understand that Hebrew does not rhyme words, it rhymes concepts. And when it does rhyme, it is usually making an extremely important point.

Here is an example.in Isaiah 1:18-20
“Come now, and let us reason together,”
says the LORD,
“Though your sins are like scarlet,
They shall be as white as snow;
Though they are red like crimson,
They shall be as wool.
If you are willing and obedient,
You shall eat the good of the land;
But if you refuse and rebel,
You shall be devoured by the sword”;
For the mouth of the LORD has spoken.

Notice the "concept" or "thought" rhyming scheme

Though your sins are like scarlet,
They shall be as white as snow;
Though they are red like crimson,
They shall be as wool.

Hebrew rhyme is actually quite interesting. God anticipated the Bible being translated, so rather than rhyming words, which will change from translation to translation. God rhymed in thought and concepts that could endure translation.

Fascinating stuff.

2007-03-15 09:49:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

At the time the bible was first written, Hebrew was strictly a WRITTEN language, specifically for writing holy things, with no real intention to be translated into something spoken. The spoken language was completely different. I supect that the very early hebrews would consider the idea of making the bible rhyme rather blasphemous.

2007-03-15 09:54:00 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Wow, Archangel TJ; am i able to assist you? You look particularly indignant at Christians. to respond to your question: The Deuterocanon, appended to the Vulgate by Jerome, replaced into no longer formally further to the Catholic Canon till the Counter-Reformation. The Council of Trent (in the 1550's) replaced into the 1st council to declare that those books have been to be dealt with as equivalent to the different components of the Bible, in line with Martin Luther. Even given this, Martin Luther had no longer got rid of the Deuterocanon, yet had placed it in the back of the Bible as Apocrypha - he nevertheless believed the books to have fee. From what I understand, Luther's stance replaced into extremely on the factor of Jerome's stance. He replaced into in basic terms returning to the classic Christian information of the books, and did no longer do it arbitrarily or thoughtlessly.

2016-10-02 04:33:05 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I think in Psalms 119 it's suppose to be something like that. Or is each verse represented by each Hebrew Alphabet. Something like that.

2007-03-15 09:50:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

NO!
Hebrew poetry was based on repeating ideas not sounds

2007-03-15 09:51:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

As Andrew Dice Clay would say,


Hickory Dickory Dock . . .

2007-03-15 09:49:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Couldn't tell you, I don't speak Hebrew

2007-03-15 09:50:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

No....not even the psalms or those portions called songs.

2007-03-15 09:51:23 · answer #8 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0 0

No, it has something to do with the flow of the ideas

2007-03-15 09:50:25 · answer #9 · answered by wondering 1 · 0 0

Hmm...the Psalms might.

2007-03-15 09:49:50 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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