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Where the heck does the constitution mention Seperation of Church and State? Show me where!!!!!!!!

It was a suggestion made by Thomas Jefferson, to some pastors to not let the state run over the churches..... Where does it say it in the Constitution?

2007-03-15 09:26:12 · 13 answers · asked by Chris 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Thank You Dez.....

2007-03-15 09:31:37 · update #1

It was not meant to be twofold, only to keep the state out of church, but keep the church into state.... They wanted a religious country but not to be denomiated by one religion in particular, and hence we have this.... Yet, we christians that cannont pay for private schools want to teach Bible, in the schools and creation only as an optional course, yet u won't let us, doesn't this violate it?

2007-03-15 09:34:28 · update #2

And are u aware of the fact that there is no law prohibiting the teaching of Creation in schools? So why are u pestering us?

2007-03-15 09:35:54 · update #3

13 answers

seperation of church and state basicly means the church is above the government. so according to that the governement cant get involved in the churches buisness.

2007-03-15 09:30:27 · answer #1 · answered by NONAME 3 · 0 2

It doesn't say those exact words, no.

There are any number of important legal concepts which do not appear in the Constitution with the exact phrasing people tend to use. For example, nowhere in the Constitution will you find words like "right to privacy" or even "right to a fair trial." Does this mean that no American citizen has a right to privacy or a fair trial? Does this mean that no judge should ever invoke these rights when reaching a decision?

There is nothing there about a "fair trial," but what should be clear is that this Amendment is setting up the conditions for fair trials: public, speedy, impartial juries, information about the crimes and laws, etc. The Constitution does not specifically say that you have a right to a fair trial, but the rights created only make sense on the premise that a right to a fair trial exists. Thus, if the government found a way to fulfill all of the above obligations while also making a trial unfair, the courts would hold those actions to be unconstitutional.

Similarly, courts have found that the principle of a "religious liberty" exists behind in the First Amendment, even if those words are not actually there:

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof..."

The point of such an amendment is twofold. First, it ensures that religious beliefs - private or organized - are removed from attempted government control. This is the reason why the government cannot tell either you or your church what to believe or to teach. Second, it ensures that the government does not get involved with enforcing, mandating, or promoting particular religious doctrines. This is what happens when the government "establishes" a church - and because doing so created so many problems in Europe, the authors of the Constitution wanted to try and prevent the same from happening here.

*edit* You ACTUALLY think that the founding fathers wanted this country to have government infused with faith?

Man.... our education system really is failing. I know you won't pick my answer as best because you're just so.... ignorant!!

2007-03-15 09:28:32 · answer #2 · answered by ZER0 C00L ••AM••VT•• 7 · 11 1

The phrase "separation of church and state" is derived from a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to a group identifying themselves as the Danbury Baptists. In that letter, QUOTING THE FIRST AMANDMENT of the United States Constitution, he writes: "I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, thus building a wall of separation between Church and State."

2007-03-15 09:29:18 · answer #3 · answered by Loathing 6 · 3 0

It doesn't say separation of Church and State but it does state, "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof;" which has been interpreted by the courts time and time again to mean separation of church and state.

2007-03-15 09:45:21 · answer #4 · answered by bobbie_jo45 4 · 1 0

I think you are absolutely correct. It is high time that the Government stepped in and not only regulated Religion but collected the revenue from it as well.
The sooner we can bring religion totally under state control the better. We Should eliminate the party system of voting as well.One Party One Vote Under One God. (the one vote to be cast by King Bush)
All money should be surrendered to God because it is his money anyhow(his name is on it) and the United Church Of America can render it unto the representatives of God on Earth (Chase Manhattan)

You can teach whatever you want in "Your" schools, I just don't want it to be with my money. At least not unless you teach actual science.
Otherwise we have to teach all religions as true faith.
Bring in the Hindoos, Moslems, Taoists, Buddhists..... everybody.
DO you understand that?

Or are you one of those Burger King believers who think they can Have it all and have it All their way?

And actually there is a law prohibiting the teaching of Creationism in schools, and it is for all USA because you boneheads appealed a State Court's decision to the Supreme Court and lost there too. Real Intelligent.

2007-03-15 09:40:56 · answer #5 · answered by U-98 6 · 0 0

First Amendment:

Amendment I
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances.

2007-03-15 09:30:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Amendment I

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."

Free exercise thereof. It's right there, plain as day. Since the support of any one religion would restrict the rights of those who practice another religion or no religion at all, the government must be separate.

That does not mean people cannot vote or guide their goverment as they see fit, only that religion itself cannot be enshrined by government.

2007-03-15 09:32:21 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 5 0

The phrase "separation of church and state" is derived from a letter written by Thomas Jefferson to a group identifying themselves as the Danbury Baptists. In that letter, quoting the First Amendment of the United States Constitution, he writes: "I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, thus building a wall of separation between Church and State."[2]

Another early user of the term was James Madison, the principal drafter of the United States Bill of Rights, who often wrote of "total separation of the church from the state" (1819 letter to Robert Walsh). "Strongly guarded . . . is the separation between religion and government in the Constitution of the United States," Madison wrote, and he declared, "practical distinction between Religion and Civil Government is essential to the purity of both, and as guaranteed by the Constitution of the United States" (1811 letter to Baptist Churches). This attitude is further reflected in the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom, which was originally authored by Thomas Jefferson, but championed by Madison. The Declaration guarantees that no one may be compelled to finance any religion or denomination.

... no man shall be compelled to frequent or support any religious worship, place, or ministry whatsoever, nor shall be enforced, restrained, molested, or burthened in his body or goods, nor shall otherwise suffer on account of his religious opinions or belief; but that all men shall be free to profess, and by argument to maintain, their opinion in matters of religion, and that the same shall in no wise diminish enlarge, or affect their civil capacities. [3]

The United States Supreme Court has referenced the separation of church and state metaphor more than 25 times. The first instance was in 1878.

Article 6 is also funny, it contains this line:
"no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States".

I'm European, but it is obvious you guys would not choose an atheist person in your lifetime for president (I really don't know if they were all some kind of christian, maybe all deists?). Which is really a religious test. Weirdos.

2007-03-15 09:31:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

This is one of those weird "that phrase doesn't exist in the constitution" questions, right?

Well, you also won't find the phrases "right to privacy" or "right to a fair trial", yet they are valid and important legal concepts with the full support of constitutional law....exactly like the seperation of church and state.
Sorry.

2007-03-15 09:32:30 · answer #9 · answered by Samurai Jack 6 · 4 0

Churches don't embrace democratic principles so liberal democracy isn't compatible with a church that is involved with politics. We recognised that in the UK a century ago but America is a little behind us.

2007-03-15 09:31:44 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

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