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I know the gain is 1+(R2/R1), but the full derivation isn't written in my notes and I need it for a piece of coursework, please help!

2007-03-15 08:48:47 · 2 answers · asked by wonder.crumpet 2 in Science & Mathematics Engineering

2 answers

Look at the inverting and non-inverting terminals on the op-amp. In 'normal' operation, the voltages (v1, v2) have to be the same. Since the inverting input is fed from the output ov the op-amp through a simple divider circuit, the voltage seen at the non-inverting input is
Vo*(R1/(R1+R2)) so
Vi = Vo*(R1/(R1+R2)) and
Vo = Vi*((R1+R2)/R1)= Vi(1+R2/R1)

HTH ☺

Doug

2007-03-15 09:00:06 · answer #1 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

confident, your question is obscure. The income of an inverting configuration is -Rf/Ri. The income of a non inverting configuration is (Rf+Ri)/Ri. it extremely is undemanding to coach that it extremely is the case by assuming an appropriate amplifier. The bandwidth would be on the factor of GBWP divided by the closed loop income.

2016-10-02 04:28:31 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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