Unlike the sinful humans that presented themselves for baptism, Jesus did not have to make a request for a clean conscience, or "die" to his past life and get a fresh start.
Jesus' baptism, and only his, was about his presenting himself to his Father to do His will, thus becoming annointed as the Messiah. It's why after he came up out of the water a dove came out of heaven and God's spirit said "This is my son the beloved whom I have approved."
2007-03-15 06:54:51
·
answer #1
·
answered by Q&A Queen 7
·
2⤊
0⤋
While Jesus was here on earth, he had an earthy body and complied with all his own laws that he had set forth upon the earth.
So, by being baptized he was following his own commands while in his earthly body.
He came here as a lamb, not a King. He was submissive to his own laws as he stated he would be. To have not been baptized at that time would have made it seem that he was above everyone else and he wasnt at that time.
2007-03-15 06:48:02
·
answer #2
·
answered by cindy 6
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus was baptized as our example. However the verse you are talking about has nothing to do with earthly water. It is talking here about being baptized by the Holy Spirit and this happens the moment you except Jesus as your Savior
2007-03-15 06:43:50
·
answer #3
·
answered by PREACHER'S WIFE 5
·
1⤊
0⤋
You are viewing baptism only with the idea that it is a public showing of someone's repentance. However, in Jesus' case, it is something different. Look in the story in Matthew 2:13-17. Matthew 2:15 says, "Jesus answered him "Let it be so now; for it is proper for us in this way to fulfill all righteousness." Jesus explains his baptism as fulfilling all righteousness/justice. To be righteous or just is to be faithful to God's just or right will. Jesus' baptism expression is his faithfulness to accomplish God's purposes and commission (to come to be the savior of the world). In the next verses, God responds to this act with a declaration of love and approval. He speaks to Christ from heaven telling the world that this is his son and he is pleased by him. It isn't about sinfulness. It's about willingness to fulfill the mission that God sent Jesus to do on earth.
2007-03-15 06:48:11
·
answer #4
·
answered by One Odd Duck 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
John replaced into the forerunner to Jesus, a hermit who lived in the barren area, the son of a guy who replaced right into a clergyman, and likely one which were murdered in the course of the Roman takeover. (Rumors from custom). He knew about Jesus from the time he replaced right into a baby, or earlier, and had to practice the human beings for being worth of having the Messiah interior their midst. i do no longer imagine John anticipated to be having to baptize Jesus. truly, he suggested "i'm no longer worth to do away including your sandals." So Jesus insisted, and at the same time as the baptism easily occurred, there exceeded off an inexplicable phenomena. And it replaced into for this that John baptized Jesus. it might want to probably be that pigeons and doves are stupid birds, yet what number did you know that easily land on human beings's heads? And in spite of the undeniable fact that no longer each body heard the Voice of God retaining "that's my son in whom i'm nicely delighted!" Many heard thunder. It replaced right into a second for all those who can understand the which technique of all of it.
2016-12-02 01:27:11
·
answer #5
·
answered by ? 4
·
0⤊
0⤋
Jesus states in Matthew 3:15 It becometh us to fulfil all righteousness.
Jesus was an example for us and confirmed the righteousness of baptism.
Matthew 3:13 Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. 16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: 17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.
2007-03-15 06:52:57
·
answer #6
·
answered by deacon 6
·
1⤊
0⤋
Jesus’ Baptism in Water. The baptism of Jesus himself as performed by John must of necessity have had a meaning and purpose quite different from John’s baptism, as Jesus “committed no sin, nor was deception found in his mouth.” (1Pe 2:22) So he could not submit to an act symbolizing repentance. Undoubtedly it was for this reason that John objected to baptizing Jesus. But Jesus said: “Let it be, this time, for in that way it is suitable for us to carry out all that is righteous.”—Mt 3:13-15.
Luke states that Jesus was praying at the time of his baptism. (Lu 3:21) Further, the writer of the letter to the Hebrews says that when Jesus Christ came “into the world” (that is, not when he was born and could not read and say these words, but when he presented himself for baptism and began his ministry) he was saying, in accord with Psalm 40:6-8 (LXX): “Sacrifice and offering you did not want, but you prepared a body for me. . . . Look! I am come (in the roll of the book it is written about me) to do your will, O God.” (Heb 10:5-9) Jesus was by birth a member of the Jewish nation, which nation was in a national covenant with God, namely, the Law covenant. (Ex 19:5-8; Ga 4:4) Jesus, by reason of this fact, was therefore already in a covenant relationship with Jehovah God when he thus presented himself to John for baptism. Jesus was there doing something more than what was required of him under the Law. He was presenting himself to his Father Jehovah to do his Father’s “will” with reference to the offering of his own “prepared” body and with regard to doing away with animal sacrifices that were offered according to the Law. The apostle Paul comments: “By the said ‘will’ we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all time.” (Heb 10:10) The Father’s will for Jesus also involved activity in connection with the Kingdom, and for this service too Jesus presented himself. (Lu 4:43; 17:20, 21) Jehovah accepted and acknowledged this presentation of his Son, anointing him with holy spirit and saying: “You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.”—Mr 1:9-11; Lu 3:21-23; Mt 3:13-17.
2007-03-15 18:44:04
·
answer #7
·
answered by wannaknow 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
When Jesus came to John to be baptized, John asked the same question. Why should he, a sinful man, baptize the Messiah? He tried to prevent Jesus from being baptized saying “I need to be baptized by You and You are coming to me?” (Matthew 3:14). The baptisms that John performed symbolized repentance, and he saw this as inappropriate for the One he knew to be the spotless Lamb of God. Jesus replied that it should be done because “it is fitting for us to fulfill all righteousness” (Matthew 3:15). Christ was here identifying Himself with sinners. He will ultimately bear their sins; His perfect righteousness will be imputed to them (2 Corinthians 5:21). Therefore, this act of baptism was a necessary part of the righteousness He secured for sinners. His was a perfect righteousness in that He fulfilled all the requirements of the Law which we, for whose sin He would exchange His righteousness, are not capable of fulfilling. He is our perfect substitute.
This baptism was a very public one and was recorded for all generations to know about and understand, and it is important for several reasons. First, it pictures His death and resurrection. Second, it symbolizes the believer’s identification with Christ in His death, burial, and resurrection. Third, it marks His first public identification with those whose sins He would bear. Fourth, the event was a public affirmation of His Messiahship by the testimony that came directly from heaven (Matthew 3:17).
Water baptism is used as a way to identify. In Jesus’ day, when a Gentile would convert to Judaism, he would have to be publicly baptized to identify him as a convert. Obviously, Jesus was not converting to anything. Jesus’ baptism was an identification of Jesus with the Father and the Holy Spirit. Jesus was baptized to publicly announce Himself as God’s Son, and to pronounce the beginning of His ministry with the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus did not “need” the Holy Spirit. However, to set an example for us, Jesus emptied Himself (Philippians 2:7) and relied upon the Holy Spirit’s power. Jesus' baptism and reliance upon the Holy Spirit is an example that we are to follow in our own lives.
2007-03-15 16:38:46
·
answer #8
·
answered by Freedom 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
How can you expect everyone else to be baptized if you don't start with yourself? That's what Jesus did. Jesus experienced everything that a man can possibly experience or feel, so we could relate to Him and He would understand our needs, fears, and concerns.
2007-03-15 06:48:13
·
answer #9
·
answered by Mrs.Blessed 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
He says in another verse that it was to fullfill all righteousness. Righteousness means justice, meaning it would not have been just for Jesus to be exalted by the Father unless Jesus completed every task that all of the Father's children are required to do. Jesus was the ultimate example, so this act is meant to communicate to us that if we are to be saved we have to be baptised by one who has the proper authority, just like John the Baptist did.
2007-03-15 06:40:44
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
2⤊
0⤋