there was no one else on earth to recite sermons,or prepare documents for their marriage. They did it at their mutual agreement. so, should we infer: it is not an adultary if both gave their consent,a third party is not needed.
Was the first human child legitimate?
(especially to the muslims and religious ones)!
2007-03-15 00:19:06 · 21 answers · asked by alone in 6billion 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
You are very perceptive.
Adam and eve were to be husband and wife, but first needed to grow up. Or in the words of the Bible, before they could "Multiply" they had to first "Be Fruitful". (Gen 1:28)
Adam and Eve had not started being husband and wife before the "fruit" was shared. How can you tell? They covered their lower (sexual) parts afterwards.
God is a God of love ... and he only crime that could make him throw his children out of home would be the misuse of love (known as adultary in the 10 Commandments).
Their love was so selfish, that their first child murdered his brother. If you want to say the children were "illegitimate", that would explain why the New Testament refers to us as "awaiting adoption" (Rom 8:23)
2007-03-15 00:50:25 · answer #1 · answered by wizebloke 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Adam and Eve had probably around 56 children. In order to populate the earth they had to marry between brother and sister. God allowed for this and it wasn't considered a sin to do this until the time of Moses. During that time until now, it was no longer necessary.
Even though only 3 of Adam and Eve's children are mentioned in the Bible doesn't mean that is all the children they had. They were told to go forth and proliferate and they did. People were told during the time of Moses and the 10 Commandments that from then on, marriage between relatives was forbidden.
2007-03-15 07:29:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
How can they commit adultary if they're the only humans then? Thus, their first four childrens (2 sets of a male and female twins) are legitimate.
2007-03-15 07:25:52 · answer #3 · answered by RuByGirL 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, i dont think they had pen and paper or anything else to prepare marriage documents ;)
God created them to be together for marriage. Just because there was no other human being there at the time to witness it doesn't mean their marriage was not valid.
Genesis 1vs28 says: Then God blessed them....
Doesn't a pastor/priest bless a couple when they get married.... God is the aurthor of marriage.... He's the one who initiated the first marriage
2007-03-15 07:35:16 · answer #4 · answered by ellecat 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
With the sacrament of matrimony, the ministers of the sacrament are the man and the woman to be married.
They confer the sacrament on each other|
Although it is the usual canonical way to have witnesses, theoretically, the two could be alone on a desert island and validly get married.
When you hear the minister say: "I now pronounce you man and wife" with so many weddings, in the Catholic Church, you never hear that said at a wedding because of the Catholic doctrines of sacramentality and of who the valid minister is for a given particular sacrament|
---
2007-03-15 07:38:18 · answer #5 · answered by Catholic Philosopher 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
This is something Ive also thought about, since some christians are so against sex before "marriage."
The truth is, there is a difference between "paper marriage" and spiritual marriage.
First of all, the story of adam and eve is obviously just a story. a faeble at its best. (i mean, come on, a talking SNAKE, for petes sake!)
secondly if theyre the only people on earth at that time, and were bumpin uglies, they were married. According to biblical belief if you had sex, you were married to that person. So yah. Theres your answer.
It wasn't until later that the pagan "hand-fasting" ceremony was stolen and imposed as a christian union. ;)
2007-03-15 07:26:09 · answer #6 · answered by Kitten K 1 · 1⤊ 2⤋
It is not accurate to state that "they did it at their mutual agreement." The account clearly states that God, after creating her from the man's rib, brought the woman to the man. It was God who put them together . . . they did not decide this on their own. Adultery would require the involvement of a third human, would it not? There were no other humans.
Hannah J Paul
2007-03-15 07:22:53 · answer #7 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 4⤊ 1⤋
They were husband & wife. So what has adultery got to do with their relationship? Especially when no other male or female was around.?
2007-03-15 07:30:31 · answer #8 · answered by easyrecognition 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No they did not commit adultery. Neither was promised to anyone else. Therefore they were free to love one another.
2007-03-15 07:22:48 · answer #9 · answered by celianne 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
ummmmmmmmmm
there was no one else to committ adultury with
If you are speaking of fornication, then No, God sanctified the marriage. He created the two of them for each other
2007-03-15 07:22:40 · answer #10 · answered by kenny p 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋