Here in an quote of the quaran from an answer to another question
31. And say to the believing women that they should lower their gaze and guard their modesty; that they should not display their beauty and ornaments except what (must ordinarily) appear thereof; that they should draw their veils over their bosoms and not display their beauty except to their husbands, their fathers, their husband's fathers, their sons, their husbands' sons, their brothers or their brothers' sons, or their sisters' sons, or their women, or the slaves whom their right hands possess, or male servants free of physical needs, or small children who have no sense of the shame of sex; and that they should not strike their feet in order to draw attention to their hidden ornaments. And O ye Believers! turn ye all together towards Allah, that ye may attain Bliss.
It clearly states that they should draw their veils over their bosoms not their faces.
2007-03-14
21:34:42
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19 answers
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asked by
clever investor
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
And also in that quote it says that you may have female slaves and enuchs under your command. What sort of God do they believe in...a very sadistic being.
2007-03-14
21:35:58 ·
update #1
terry g
this is a quote from the quran and it states slavery in it..it was so in history that Muslims where alowed to posses slaves and the quran alowed it. You are a muslim and dont know youre oen history.
2007-03-14
21:50:00 ·
update #2
Because they are about 1000 years out of date with the real world.
It's why they still kill themselves for religion and think they are going to an afterlife, muppets!
2007-03-14 21:39:56
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answer #1
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answered by Ni 4
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The Qur'an is the only holy book that says "free the slave", no other book does. There is no "allow" but an understanding from God that no one will automatically give up slavery. The Qur'an was revealed in the 600's and slavery ended in the 1850's in America (some argue that's not even true). The Qur'an is for ALL TIMES not just today. There are people who practice slavery today.
The first people to convert to Islam were SLAVES AND WOMEN. The biggest scholar was Hadrat Ayesha, major companions were Hadrat Zaid (slave) and Hadrat Bilal (slave and not even Arab).
As for niqab, it's a difference of opinion with scholars. You can't be a laymen and say "well this is what the Qur'an says" because you are not reading the Arabic. There are many word choices you can use.
Most scholars agree it is just the hair not the face.
2007-03-17 14:13:08
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answer #2
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answered by aliasasim 5
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Some Islamic faithful veil their faces when out and about because men are so frail that they covet women that expose their beauty. That has been true here also. Women were not to go swimming because of exposure of too much skin. The women had to dress properly with little of the body exposed. Women here were considered property of the husband. They were not even allowed to vote until the early part of the past century.
Christians had slaves in the south for many years.
Most Islamic women do not have to cover their faces but need to wear a head scarf. Women who have moved to the west continue to wear their scarves but can get education and become professionals in many Fields.
2007-03-15 04:57:02
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Yes muslim women should cover their bodies from toes up to their hair,because it is an instruction of Allah the only one God as stated in (1)Surah 7 Al Araaf verse 26 (2)Surah 24 An Nuur verse 31 and (3)Surah 33 Al Ahzab verse 59..These instructions are for the benefit of women themselves becau
se they will be more safe and secure and make a clear differ rence/distinction with non muslim women.Their faces part of them covered by veil or jilbab and part of them uncovered
.It depends on their degree of compliance..But not all muslim women wear jilbab in several countries where majority of its population are muslims.Now slavery is not allowed in all of muslim countries because it is against with human rights and mankind.Islam since its coming prohibited slavery.But before Islam coming,Arab people in the era of jahiliyah (worship to idols/statues) they had a slavery tradition .So in the transition period to a new religion Muhammad pbuh was trying to abolish slavery step by step by freeing them with a certain payment to their masters.A punishment or fasting obligation can be conducted/fulfiled by freeing a slave
2007-03-15 05:22:49
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answer #4
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answered by ? 7
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Okay people... first of all, the primar question is why the muslim women covers their hair(neck/face...), and not their bosoms.
And for that question I may answer, that it is because of the interpretation of the books(and by that I mean all religious statements).
Beside we know men are jealous (which is a feeling created from many different aspects, not a rational act), and they probably made the hole point a fanatic issue, instead of following the words of God.
2007-03-15 06:44:10
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answer #5
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answered by samantha21it 4
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I was at the Mohamed Ali mosque in Cairo recently where women, including our Islamic guide, where not required to cover their hair ,never mind their faces. Down the road at the market area was another mosque with a sign on the door in English saying "No women". There is great variation in the interpretation of Islam just as there is in Christianity.
2007-03-15 04:43:12
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answer #6
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answered by Charles D 2
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So u quoted the verse, I had send u.
But u didn't mention anything related to the site I send u, which is given below:
http://www.sultan.org/articles/QScience.html
If u can find any question regarding the verses from this site, I will award you.
Also, can u convince the French Scientist to change his mind???? I bet, u cannot because, He has found the truth. He has found that happiness and success in this world an dthe life after only lies in following Islam.
May Allah guide you.
2007-03-15 04:50:00
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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The verse you quoted is God's command specifically to Muslim women on covering the aurat. And only those people mentioned may see the aurat of the woman. But, as all of Quran goes, each verse can also be interpreted to be addressed to everyone, man and woman. For your information, men AND women have their own aurat specified by God, and the above verse applies also to men (you need to read the verse by changing the male words like father/son to female words like mother/daughter).
In fact, the Quran firstly states the aurat of men, and only after mentioned this that God states the aurat for women. Maybe because God knows that men are more "naughty" than women, who knows.
I'm not sure where to find this verse in the Quran since you only quoted the verse number, and not the chapter. This is the 31st verse of which 114 chapters of the Quran?
Also, Islam does allow slavery. Well, did. And slavery is also allowed in Christianity and Judaism, as it was part of the norm of the society for thousands of years to have them. But the difference is that Islam alleviates the status of slaves, and God forbid the injustices against slaves. Islam says that a slave-owner may not mutilate a slave, food and shelter must be given, if they choose to marry let them, and if they want to buy their freedom then help them to do so. In fact Islam says that a slave may/must run from an injustice slave-owner, slaves may own property, and slaves are equal to their own masters. Islam also states that slave-owners should treat slaves as they treat themselves, and a slave should be given the same clothes that the owners themselves wear. Islam also allows slavery to work at any level of occupation, including as rulers (as happened during the Mamluk period in Egypt. Check that out)
But Christian Europe is famous for its treatment of slaves/serfs. Almost no one is allowed to travel, and whole villages were slaves to the ruler. Money can easily be extracted and those who oppose the ruler can be killed as they are just the property of someone. Christian America is more famous with its treatment of slavery, where Africans were stolen from their families and chained all the way to America. There they were forcefully baptised and were told to stop being African until they have lost their religion, language, and name.
Slavery cannot be abolished immedately, because you cannot abolish a part of society in a day. That is why Islam says that to free a slave is most honorable in the eyes of God. Islam also makes laws of some violation (like having sex during Ramadan fasting) with having to free a slave as its punishment. There was also a story of an imam who would buy a slave every Friday and free them immediately after that.
Yes Islam allowed slavery, but Islam wants it to end as quickly as possible.
2007-03-17 12:36:39
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answer #8
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answered by farhansallehin 3
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Yes we should use the veil to cover our bosom not the face and for slavery during the prophet times slavery in not new only we have to be merciful and give them freedom when it deem fit.
2007-03-15 04:39:27
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I can answer your question if you tell me : did the bible allow slavery, did the bible condemned slavery ,you have to think before you speak
the slaves in Islam is different than other slaves they got more rights they can take their masters to court if they mistreated them and slaves in Islam can be kings ,don't be surprised it really happened just read the history good
2007-03-15 06:31:51
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answer #10
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answered by atoufic 2
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http://www.bbc.co.uk/religion/religions/islam/
read about islam on a non-biased site, that may dispel some of your thoughts or help you understand better the nature of islam. Like many religions, fanatics and zealots have abused the 'words' of a holy book and twisted them into the what THEY believe. Sadly, many 'buy' into this and are easily led.
2007-03-15 06:30:14
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answer #11
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answered by Anonymous
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