has he ever said "father" about God?,or he knew that he has no father,and that God is his lord?
2007-03-14 09:20:02 · 14 answers · asked by shockoshocko 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There is no doubt that Islam is a purely monotheistic religion. Chapter of Al-Ikhlaas (Unity) states such monotheism in a very simple and clear way:
“Say there is no God but only one God. The only One. He begets not. Neither is He begotten. And there is none like Him”
In view of the Qur’an and based on the Qur’anic text, Jesus never alleged that God is his father, neither in the metaphorical sense of sonship, nor otherwise. The Qur’an reads:
“(Jesus) said I am the servant of God; He gave me the book (Bible), and made me a prophet”
The Qur’an completely rejects the belief of the TRINITY or TRION as clearly stated in the UNITY chapter shown above.
Now we may ask, why the confusion then?
Well, to clarify this point, we have to know that Semite languages have certain features that may be completely different from other languages. Aramaic, Hebrew, and Arabic are Semite languages. Jesus spoke in Aramaic which is similar to the Classical Arabic language in many ways. During the last supper, the Roman soldier asked about Jesus. Jesus answered: “Ana Hu!” which means in Arabic: “Ana Huwa”. Jesus used to say in his prayer to God: “Eli, Eli”, which is El, or Eloh, meaning God with the possessive suffix “I”, meaning MY GOD. Jesus alleged cry on the cross: “Eli, Eli" is in Arabic “Elahi, Elahi"
In Aramaic, the word FATHER does not only mean FATHER as in being a parent, but it can also be used metaphorically; father of all sciences, father of inventions, and so on. The same can also be applicable on the word LORD; lord could mean God as the owner of everything, and the lord as in someone holding a big estate; a king or someone holding a high position; a judge.
Jesus was conceived in a miraculous way; no mortal father. He used, as mentioned in the Bible, to call his creator MY FATHER since Aramaic allows that. But, did he mean Father as in PARENTS. The answer is a big, fat NO. In no way, Jesus came to destroy monotheism by alleging a unique relationship between him and God; Sonship. He was a Jew after all.
The history of the recording of the Bible states that:
1. It was not written during Jesus time, but hundred of years later
2. The current Bibles, particularly the New Testament, are translated from a language foreign to the Aramaic.
As I always said: “Translation is a betrayal of the origin text” It is impossible to render one language to another language without oversighting certain meanings in the process.
Therefor, in view of the above, the sonship and uniqueness of Jesus was misunderstood, and was taken literarily.
2007-03-14 21:47:40 · answer #1 · answered by Aadel 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A common misunderstanding of MANY Christians is that Jesus(A.S.) was JEWISH and spoke ARAMAIC.
Certain languages have certain idioms and definitions unique to that language and its culture. The Hebrews spoke Aramaic and Aramaic Hebrew, the predecessor to present day Hebrew.
In the Jewish faith, they had many names for their God.
For example, Eloh meant 'something worthy to be worshiped' or 'God' in Aramaic, and is the root form of the Arabic word 'Allah' with the same meaning. Even Jesus(A.S) called Him this (Mark 15:34*)
*The '-i' ending made the word Eloh possessive(MY God).
YHWH, or Yehowah, literally meant 'I Am Who I Am' and is the name in which Moses(A.S.) acknowledged God by.
The 'Father' was the name in which many Jews called God in order to acknowledge His Divine Power of Creation. Jesus(A.S.) never meant it LITERALLY. So when someone called another 'the Son of God', it meant that he was a righteous man. It's just how the language was back then.
For example... Nowadays if I wrote you a letter saying you were 'the sh*t', 'the bomb', or 'my angel', you would understand the meaning behind it.
But what if our culture dies out, our language becomes a dead language and a later civilization tries to piece it together, what do you think THEY'LL get out of it?
'Oh, the recipient of this letter must have been a piece of fecal matter/an incendiary device/a divine being of light with wings.'
For all the ignorant people out there who wish to argue the fruitless attempt that Jesus(A.S) was the 'Only Begotten Son of God', then explain Psalm 2:7 when God addresses David(A.S.) as His Begotten Son?
Seek knowledge; knowledge is power; power is freedom; freedom is peace...
So may peace be upon you...
2007-03-14 11:50:52 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Isa (Jesus-PBUH) knows Allah (SWT) is his Lord and not his father as the Qur'an clearly states in Surah 112:
1. Say: He is Allah, the One and Only;
2. Allah, the Eternal, Absolute;
3. He begetteth not, nor is He begotten;
4. And there is none like unto Him.
2007-03-14 10:14:50 · answer #3 · answered by سيف الله بطل جهاد 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Allah litearlly means "The One True God" and Christian Arabs use this word too.
The word father is misunderstood. In a way, God is our "father" as he created us, but not in the way they speak of Jesus.
Jesus (as) was just like all the other Prophets with the same message. People get confused on this issue.
2007-03-14 09:51:28 · answer #4 · answered by aliasasim 5 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Adam replaced right into a son of God. Jesus replaced into born of the potential of the Holy Spirit that allowed Mary to grow to be pregnant besides the actuality that a virgin. Jesus replaced into greater the son of God then Adam, because of the fact besides the actuality that born in a corrupt international, Jesus did the will of God completely. Adam, besides the actuality that born in paradise, did no longer stick to the will of God yet his very own will, so is a lesser son than Jesus. because of the fact we are descended from Adam and followers of Christ, we too could be real infants of God, by way of doing God's will.
2016-10-02 03:08:58 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
We have this quote here:
Matthew 11:27
All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.
He is clearly saying here the lord is his father and he is the son.
Over and over again Jesus refers "my father" and nowhere "our father." If he is but a mere mortal is he not everybody's father and therefore, should use the word our? Why does he say my?
2007-03-14 09:50:32 · answer #6 · answered by eric c 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
never. just a messenger like mohamed (pbuh) and the rest of the other messengers that were sent by god
2007-03-14 11:56:05 · answer #7 · answered by mhatab6898 1 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No he didn't consider God to be his father according to islamic teachings.
2007-03-14 09:24:10 · answer #8 · answered by E.T.01 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Jesus (pbuh) is a slave to Allah/God and a prophet to us. He is not Gods son because God has no son.
2007-03-14 09:25:30 · answer #9 · answered by Haji 3 · 4⤊ 2⤋
Jesus always referred to God as his father.
2007-03-14 09:24:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 4⤋