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I have heard that when Jesus came, he basically wiped the slate clean and set the new law. But the Ten Commandments still stand, right, and they were part of the OT. In addition, doesn't this excerpt show that the old ways are NOT to be thrown out....

"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:17-18

So, my question is, why does Christianity still employ the 10 Commandments, yet disregard the other parts of the OT, especially the violent and immoral parts (i.e. God killing children, punishment for working on the Sabbath is death, etc.)? And why are these things disregarded if Jesus said no law shall fail?

This is not meant to offend, but to understand better. Thanks.

2007-03-14 00:40:54 · 24 answers · asked by eastchic2001 5 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

24 answers

This is a great question and the answer is not as intuitive as most people would like. The confusion with Matthew 5:17-18 is resolved by understanding what He was referring to. It might be easier to understand if it is paraphrased like this: “Unless heaven and earth disappear, we must obey the law in its entirety until I have finished what I came to do.”
It is my understanding that the key to this question is in the timing. When Jesus said these things, he was still alive and His mission was not yet completed, and so the Law of the Old Testament was still to be obeyed.
It was not until after His death and resurrection that the phrase "everything is accomplished" is fulfilled. Once His work was complete, the sin debt was paid and the commandments of Christ took over.
The Lord's Commandments do reiterate all but one of the Ten Commandments, the exception being that of the Sabbath which was a ceremonial commandment given strictly to the Jews as the Chosen People. Paul addresses these things in the Book of Colossians chapter 2.
We do not disregard the other parts of the Old Testament. The old laws are still to be used to identify what is and what is not sinful, and the penalty for those sins is still death, but Christ paid for that penalty at the Crucifixion. Now we (Christians) belong to Him and we do His bidding.
Christ lived without sin. He obeyed those laws to the letter and with perfection. Then He died guiltless. You might say (to use the vernacular) He paid up front, removing us from those law's authority and placing us under His authority.
Those who do not wish to follow Christ would be well advised to study those laws very well, because that may be their only hope. But they should take warning. Even the smallest unatoned sin will condemn them to eternal death.
We are told that Christ is the only way and that no man may come to the Father except through Him. That suggests that no one will ever be able to follow the laws of the Old Testament to perfection.
I hope this clears things up for you. I do study the scripture, though I am no expert. I generally find insight to the meanings of passages through online Bible commentary.

2007-03-14 01:57:06 · answer #1 · answered by sparc77 7 · 0 0

Jesus said he came to fulfill the law. That is precisely what he did. If a promise is fulfilled, do we keep looking for the fulfillment? If a contract to buy a car is fulfilled, do we keep paying a car note? Christ fulfilled the law and Paul makes it plain at Ephesians 2:15 that the law was abolished. At Colossians 2:14 he plainly states that it was blotted out - nailed to the torture stake. Of course, we should feel happy about this. For the punishment for violating the sabbath was death.

It is true that some feel the Mosaic law was divided into parts: the moral part (the Ten Commandments) and the ceremonial part. They also feel that the moral part – the Ten Commandments – is still in force. Well, when Christ referred to the law, did he do so in a manner that indicated a division into two parts? At Matthew 5:17, 21, 23, 27, 31 and 38, he said, as you quoted: "Do not think I came to destroy the law . . . but to fulfill." Notice, however, what else he said further on: "You heard that it was said you must not murder." This is a reference to the sixth commandment found at Exodus 20:13. But then he says: "If now you are bringing your gift to the alter . . . " this is a reference to Deuteronomy 16:16, 17 which is part of the law but no part of the Ten Commandments.

Continuing on: "You heard that it was said you must not commit adultery." This is a reference to the seventh commandment found at Exodus 20:14. Then he says "It was said whoever divorces his wife let him give her a certificate of divorce." This is Deuteronomy 24:1 which is no part of the Ten Commandments. He does this often, mixing references to the Ten Commandments with other parts of the Mosaic law. He draws no line of demarcation. Should we?

Moreover, the apostle Paul says under inspiration at Romans 7:6 and 7 that "We [the Jews] have been discharged from the law." He goes on: I would not have known covetousness if the Law had not said you must not covet." Notice, immediately after writing that Jews had been discharged from the law, what example does he use to illustrate his teaching? The Tenth Commandment! Thus he shows that the ten commandments were included in the Law from which they had been discharged. He draws no line of demarcation between the Ten Commandments and the law. Should we?

Finally, when Jesus was asked what was the greatest commandment, what was his reply? Did he isolate the Ten Commandments? No. He said you must love God with your whole heart, soul, mind body and strength. And the second is this: love your neighbor as yourself. Jesus here quotes Deuteronomy 6:5 and Leviticus 19:18. Then he says on these two commandments the whole law hangs and the prophets. If some cling to the Ten Commandments and teach that they are binding but that the rest are not, are they not in fact rejecting what Jesus here says as to which is the greatest?

A careful consideration goes to show that Jewish Christians were discharged from the law and all other Christians [Gentile Christians] have NEVER been under the law. The Mosaic law covenant was between God and the nation of Israel.

Does this mean that Christians are under no type of restraint? No. Many of the moral standards found in the Mosaic law are restated in the Christian Greek Scriptures (New Testament).

Hannah J Paul

2007-03-14 01:03:15 · answer #2 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 1 0

You have quite a variety of answers here, and I'm sure there will be more that vary as well, since everyone has their own interpretation.

My belief on this is that we are not to disregard the OT, but where things were punishable by death then (because there was no salvation), now they are not.

Jesus came & died for our sins, and released us from the death sentance for our sins from the OT, the NT reflects more on how to be saved, and things that will come in the future.

And as someone else mentioned, some of the things that people think were "laws" in the OT were actually being given to a specific group of people at the time. For example, I'm sure that wherever you live, and where I live, there are different laws, some I have to follow and you don't and some you have that I don't.

That doesn't mean they weren't real, just that they only applied to a certain people, and at a certain time. Laws change, rules change, that's life.

From my understanding of the bible, the Old Testament is more of a history lesson, that leads you up to the New Testament when we were able to receive our salvation. That doesn't make it less valid, but luckily we have been saved by grace if we choose to accept it, and are freed.

2007-03-14 01:08:47 · answer #3 · answered by paj 5 · 1 0

When Jesus died on the cross for our sins (lying, stealing, blasphemy, adultery etc.) he fulfilled the old law, thereby destroying any need for animal sacrifice or extreme punishment. He took the punishment for our sins so we would not have to. The Ten Commandments (the Law that Matthew is refering to in Matt 5:17-18) are like a mirror; if we look at them honestly we will see just how covered in sin we really are. If we use mans standard of sin, this does not always happen. A person could say he had never broken mans law therefore he could go to heaven. Not so with God's perfect and holy law. There is not a single person who has lived in the past, is living today, or will live in the future who has not broken one of the ten commandments. If this is the case then the Holy and Just God must send us to hell (It is in his nature that any sin must be punished). But the Holy and Just God is also so Loving that he sent his Son to die in the most painful way possible (and on top if that he rose again in three days) so that we might one day be with him in heaven. But first you must repent of any wrong doing and accept what Jesus has done for you on the cross.

James 2:10 (KJV)
For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.

2007-03-14 01:38:49 · answer #4 · answered by fireballnelson 2 · 0 0

This is a very good question and so far I never got an answer for this question.
The only know answer is that Jesus atoned for the laws and they don't have to follow law anymore. This is what's taught by paul.

In short paul can override saying of Jesus. Chrsitians read ir again
I tell you the truth, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished." Matthew 5:17-18

2007-03-14 00:46:42 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

I'll try my best to explain it. Jesus said "I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them". So, what was lacking in the Law that needed fulfillment?

You will find the answer in every teaching of Jesus. He spoke specifically in each teaching that it is the spirit which fulfills the law, not the technical details. Standing on the corner praying instead of going in the closet, picking corn on the Sabbath, the Good Samaritan, all of these show how the spirit of the law was fulfilled.

An example is the man standing on the corner praying. Obviously there is nothing wrong with prayer, and the Old Testament does say that you are to speak of God in all your comings and goings, which would include standing on the corner waiting for a bus.

What Jesus spoke of is the spirit of the man doing the praying. The person who stands and prays loudly for all to see has the wrong spirit, he just wants everyone to see how religious he is. The person who goes into his closet and prays is someone truly seeking God. Get what I mean about spirit?

Check Jesus other teachings and you will find that same theme over and over .... it's not the technical law, it's the spirit which is more important. The laws were there to keep the Jews together and safe from harm, but a lot of them no longer apply. We don't need the ones about slavery because our own man-made laws abolish it. We don't need the one about eating pork because our pigs are grain-fed.

2007-03-14 01:17:27 · answer #6 · answered by arewethereyet 7 · 0 0

Understand the Context of what Jesus said and did.

All the penalties of breaking the law in the Old Testament was paid for by Christ.
Example: Penalty for working on the Sabbath is death, Well..Jesus died and paid for that Sin, and all sins he paid for them, Now, as it concerns the Ten Commandments, we are to still follow them, but we do not have to go through a ritual sacrifice of animals through a high priest as done in Leviticus because Christ became that Sacrifice for all time, all we need do now is ask for forgiveness, and I mean really repent and ask for forgiveness.

Jesus fullfilled all the punishments for the old testament by taking on and accepting blame for all the laws being broken, He and He alone took on all the sins of the world when He Himself was Innocent. He became that perfect sacrifice.
We still follow the Ten Commandments, but do not have to be punished like they were back then, because Jesus accepted and paid for all that.

2007-03-14 00:55:46 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

John 14:6

2007-03-14 01:31:18 · answer #8 · answered by GoodQuestion 6 · 0 0

Dear Friend,

Bear in main those last few words, 'until everything is accomplished'

Consider the following Scripture

John 19:The Death of Jesus
28Later, knowing that all was now completed, and so that the Scripture would be fulfilled, Jesus said, "I am thirsty." 29A jar of wine vinegar was there, so they soaked a sponge in it, put the sponge on a stalk of the hyssop plant, and lifted it to Jesus' lips. 30When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit.

When jesus said 'until everything is accomplished' he was refering to his work on Earth. see the following verse

John 5:36
"I have testimony weightier than that of John. For the very work that the Father has given me to finish, and which I am doing, testifies that the Father has sent me.


He said 'it is done' refering to this work in John 19 The scripture in Romans:

Romans 10:4
Christ is the end of the law so that there may be righteousness for everyone who believe

This was written after Christ died and is therefore correct. See how the Bible reflects perfect harmony.

God Bless

2007-03-14 01:17:33 · answer #9 · answered by ianptitchener 3 · 1 0

When Jesus came he gave us a new set laws, yes the 10 commandments are still use and considered important, but as far as any other law in the OT they are pretty much disregarded. This is becuase before Jesus came we ahd no one to wipe away our sins, but upon his arrival in the NT came a knew set of laws.

2007-03-14 00:45:48 · answer #10 · answered by *PEACE BEGINS WITH A SMILE* 4 · 1 0

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