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I often hear the answer to "Where did Cains wife come from if there were no toher people around" being; he married his sister because it says in the bible Adam had many sons and daughters.
But why didnt it mention this in the bible specifically? From what i hear, the bible likes to set out its blood lines pretty clearly in some cases, and considering this was the first couple to exist after the first people on earth, why isnt it laid out more certainly in the Bible?

2007-03-13 23:34:01 · 5 answers · asked by A Drunken Man 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

To get the most specific answer possible, you would have to ask Moses, the writer of Genesis. He has been gone for a while, so that isn't possible.

All you will find HERE is speculation.

Here's my speculation: Moses knew his audience pretty well, and knew they were well familiar with the story, and its details. Why bother with exacting details in an already looooooooong book?

We can dismiss any sense of shame about an ancient incestuous relationship. It is doubtful Moses would have felt shame for something done by somebody else. Plus, he had been raised in the Egyptian Royal House. Brother-Sister marriages took place THERE as a matter of course, to keep the royal bloodlines pure. Also, Moses shows no qualm about mentioning Abraham's marriage to his half-sister, Sarah, or Lot's incestous relationships with his daughters. So, those are out.

2007-03-13 23:48:35 · answer #1 · answered by MamaBear 6 · 1 0

Why should it be? The Bible clearly states that Adam and Eve had many other children.It's pretty easy to draw the conclusion that Cain married his sister,it doesn't need to be there outright.If every single spouse was mentioned,the book would be huge,and it's just not necessary.

2007-03-14 06:40:43 · answer #2 · answered by Serena 5 · 1 1

Cain found His wife in the land of Nod,it was not his sister,they were not the only people.God put a protective mark on Cain,Why,God knew what Cain feared, that others would kill Him.If people would read Genesis with a open
mind
it is very clear, God filled the earth,long before He made Adam.

2007-03-14 06:41:55 · answer #3 · answered by gwhiz1052 7 · 0 2

Referential logic probably; since it is declared that Adam was the first and only man until the appearence of Eve the first and only woman.. and all subsequent humans came from Adam and Eve, until Cain and Abel were able to marry and procreate the next generation

2007-03-14 06:40:24 · answer #4 · answered by Tiara 4 · 1 1

It did, but when they were putting together all the biblical texts that would later become the bible used today, they conveniently "forgot" to put that part and many more unsavory details in the final bible.

2007-03-14 06:38:27 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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