2007-03-13 14:52:15 · 13 answers · asked by ? 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I don't believe anyone inherits original sin.
What we do inherit is life in a fallen world. We suffer the effects of living with people who are broken and hurting. Adam and Eve were the only ones who started life in a perfect world, with perfect relationships with God and each other. We don't inherit their sin, but we do still suffer the consequences of it to some degree.
I think this is also the idea when God says that the sins of the father will be visited upon the third and fourth generation. God told Israel that would happen if they were disobedient. It's not that God hates those generations, but it was a warning that our actions can have long term consequences.
Think of the generational effects of alcoholism or child abuse and neglect. Behaviors are passed down, through no fault of future generations and they are left to deal with the damage and turn things around. They don't inherit the behavior, but they do suffer the effects of living with it.
2007-03-13 15:26:16 · answer #1 · answered by Contemplative Chanteuse IDK TIRH 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
No, He did not. Original Sin would have been passed down to Jesus through a human father's DNA. Jesus was concieved without any form of human intervention, much less sexual contact. Because of this fact, He did not inherit "original sin".
2007-03-13 15:05:23 · answer #2 · answered by MamaBear 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No he did not, and here is why: The sin nature is passed down through the father. Support for this position is found in the fact that sin entered the world through Adam, not Eve. Remember, Eve was the one who sinned first. However, sin did not enter the world through her. Jesus received His human nature from Mary, but He received His divine nature through God the Holy Spirit. Therefore, Jesus is both God and man. He was sinless, had no original sin, and was both fully God and fully man.
2007-03-13 14:59:48 · answer #3 · answered by Heaven's Messenger 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because of the fact Jesus grew to become into conceived by making use of the Holy Spirit, no longer by making use of Joseph. Sin is handed on throughout the father, so God the father wanted to do the impregnating, to maintain sin from passing to Jesus.
2016-10-18 07:57:53 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
According to Catholic dogma, Mary was born by immaculate conception, so she didn't have original sin to pass on to Jesus.
At least, that's what the nuns told me.
In real life, Jesus probably didn't exist, or might have been multiple people combined into one narrative.
2007-03-13 14:55:39 · answer #5 · answered by coreyander 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, He didn't. He was born of a virgin mother, so He did not inherit the taint of original sin. Because He was sinless at birth and all throughout His life, that's why He was the pure and holy Sacrifice to atone for our sins.
This is why the doctrine of the Virgin Birth is crucial to Christian theology.
2007-03-13 14:58:57 · answer #6 · answered by Wolfeblayde 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Immaculate conception allowed Jesus to be free of original sin.
2007-03-13 14:55:17 · answer #7 · answered by fairy*chick~ 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. The bible tells us that Jesus was tested in every way as we are, but was without sin.
2007-03-13 14:55:19 · answer #8 · answered by Esther 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I say NO because Jesus was born of a virgin He was not the seed of a man.
2007-03-13 14:58:06 · answer #9 · answered by Larry 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That's why the Immaculate Conception was invented. To cover that little oops!
2007-03-13 14:57:18 · answer #10 · answered by Gene Rocks! 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋