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It is ok, just like heterosexuality is ok. The original biblical texts say nothing against it. Go back to the Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts -- it is not in there. It was later added. Anyone who worships the true word should know this and abide by it.

Old-Testament Literal Translation - . The infamous verse Leviticus 20:13, often used to condemn homosexuality, is about a married-man with another male, in the "marriage-bed" as with his wife. See the Latinized Greek for Leviticus 20:13 below:

"Kai hos an koimEthE meta arsenos koitEn
gunaikos, bdelugma epoiEsan amphoteroi;
thanatousthwsan, enoichoi eisin." [Lev 20:13 in Greek Septuagint LXX].

The translation of the Greek term 'gunaikos' is interpreted to mean: wife. Hence, the verse actually forbids male-male adultery, pertaining only to a married man.

Similarly, for Leviticus 18:22, the wording of the original Hebrew is very different from the KJV form:

"Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind:
it is abomination." [Leviticus 18:22, King James Version]

However, the original Hebrew for Leviticus 18:22 reveals a different 3rd meaning:

"We-et-zakar lo' tishkav mishkevey 'ishshah" [Lev 18:22 Hebrew, Latinized]
("And-with a-male NOT lie-down in beds-of a-woman") [Lev 18:22 literal translation]

So, the Hebrew Leviticus 18:22 mentions: someone + a male + a woman; hence, a forbidden 3-way.

Those 2 infamous Leviticus verses actually mention other women or wives, rather than male-male relationships, as is often the misinterpretation & mistranslation.

When many aspects of Biblical issues are considered, there is no textual basis for misinterpreting & mistranslating Bible verses to condemn homosexuality: the original Hebrew & Greek texts of the Bible do not condemn homosexuality at all, and so, homosexuality should not be considered a sin by today's society.

Many of the English-language Bibles have been mistranslated to condemn homosexuality, not only the 1611 King James Version. Below is a list of several English Bibles along with the phrase that translates the ancient Greek word "arsenokoitai" (1 Corinthians 6:9), which many scholars now believe means "male-pimps" or "molesters." Note the year of each Bible & its translation of "arsenokoitai":

- King_James_Version (KJV 1611) "abusers of themselves with mankind"
- Wycliffe_New_Testament (WYC 2001) "they that do lechery with men"
- American_Standard_Version (ASV 1901) "abusers of themselves with men"

- New_Life (NLV1969) "people who do sex sins with their own sex"
- 21st_Century_KJV (KJ21 1994) "abusers of themselves with mankind"
- New_American_Standard (NASB 1995) "nor effeminate, nor homosexuals"
- New_International_Version (NIV 1984) "homosexual offenders"
- Amplified_Bible (1987) "nor those who participate in homosexuality"

- Darby_Translation (public domain) "nor who abuse themselves with men"
- Young's_Literal_Translation "nor effeminate, nor sodomites"
- New_Living_Translation (NLT^ 1996) "male prostitutes, homosexuals"
- Contemporary_English_Version (1995) "behaves like a homosexual"
- Holman_Christian_Standard (HCSB 2003) "male prostitutes, homosexuals"

2007-03-13 14:38:29 · answer #1 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 5 7

The ideal answer should be NO. Homosexuality is not ok. The Bible says that it is an abomination. The reason why is said the ideal answer should be no is because people live how they want to live and they think that it is ok. For instance, can one believe that premarital sex is ok and also believe that the Bible is inerrant? Can one believe that holding grudges, gossiping, lying, backbiting, being in sexual sin, and all works of the flesh are ok, but still believe the Bible is inerrant? The answer is that they either don't believe that the Bible is inerrant, or that they really don't care. Truth be told.

2007-03-13 15:18:01 · answer #2 · answered by Chelsea 1 · 0 1

Easily. If you look at the KJV, the word homosexual isn't mentioned once. It's only the newer versions that have added that word.

If you look at the words that are now translated as homosexual, you will see that they typically mean "soft", "effiminate", "temple prostitute" or other such things.

Reason will tell you that not all effeminate men are homosexual. A temple prostitute isn't necessarily homosexual.

Some point to the verse that says man shall not lie with man as with woman and conclude that it necessarily means homosexual sex, but this ins't 100% certain either. Too, the old testament proscriptions may be called into question as other things prohibited in the early books do not carry over into the new testament.

Sodom and Gomorrah are pointed out as "obvious" cases of the evil of homosexuality. One may rightly question whether it is homosexuality or rape that was the actual crime.

In any event, it is quite as easy to make the case that homosexuality isn't condemned as it is to make the case that the Bible considers homosexuality evil.

Get yourself a good concordance and look up the verses yourself. Look at what the original words actually meant. You'll need (if you are using a Bible other than the KJV), a KJV to go along with it, as many of the words have changed. A good concordance would be Strongs. You also need to consider that in the New Testament, we have no original representations of what the authors actually spoke, as much of it wasn't originally in Greek. Jesus was speaking to the Jews, and that wasn't their language. The Greek is a translation of the original words.

Personally, I believe that there is more than enough ambiguity on the subject to cast doubt on the fundamentalist position regarding homosexuality.

Then again, I'm no longer a Christian.

2007-03-13 14:50:23 · answer #3 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 1 0

No, that in a no brainer. It would be a double standard to believe in both. Either you believe the bible is the inerrant word of God. who you believe that you are the inerrant word of God. But to believe both, is impossible.
Megan

2007-03-13 23:36:39 · answer #4 · answered by meganzopf 3 · 0 0

the Bible clearly states in Leviticus 18:22 that, "You shall not lie with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination." to say that somebody thinks that homosexuality is ok and also believes that the Bible is the inerrant word of God is a lie

2007-03-13 14:45:23 · answer #5 · answered by tim 3 · 2 2

If you believe that the bible is the inerrant word of God then you need to research your religion. Know will tell you this not even the pope himself. God, nor Jesus ever condemn homosexuality! Ever! However gay sex is forbidden because sex is soley used for creating children and carrying out God's work of populating the earth, that why Gay marriage is forbidden because marriage is a religious ceremony and always has been even in pagan faiths for two people to honor there God(s) and create children.

2007-03-13 14:46:34 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

I think so. Many people on this forum, for example, have interpreted scripture differently re: different subjects (not just homosexuality, but others as well). Some Christians have stated that the scripture doesn't really say that homosexuality is a sin, but rather it condemns other things such has adultery, sex with minors, incest, etc. These people, who interpret the scripture this way, probably believe that while homosexuality isn't exactly the "normal" course, it doesn't go against God's will or the Bible. Others, who construe the scriptures very narrowly, state that homosexuality is absolutely forbidden in the Bible. They interpret the scripture as explicitly forbidding sex between two men. These people most likely don't think you can condone homosexuality and still be a Bible literalist. I don't know the exact scriptures, and I am just going off of what others on this forum (and elsewhere) have said about the "homosexuality scriptures".

2007-03-13 14:41:28 · answer #7 · answered by eastchic2001 5 · 0 5

"Technically" yes....but here's the catch:

Believing the Bible is the inerrant word of God, and actually "following it's commands" is what distinguishes the difference...

It is possible to do what you say,
- yet it is impossible to believe homosexuality is okay and "follow" (live by) what the Bible teaches ---- because there is no room for interpretation on that issue.

The bible's teachings do not condone homosexuality.

'If a man lies with a man as one lies with a woman, both of them have done what is detestable.' Lev. 20:13a

hmmmm...."done what is detestable" .... don't sound like God condoning this behavior to me...(???)

2007-03-13 14:56:16 · answer #8 · answered by redglory 5 · 0 1

Yes. If the Bible teaches that homosexual behavior is a sin and someone misinterprets these passages, then the interpreter may mistakingly believe that homosexuality is okay and also believe that the Bible is inerrant.

2007-03-13 14:42:17 · answer #9 · answered by Steve 3 · 0 2

Could if one would stop pointing fingers and let god be the judge.
If one /s are a true blue christian then you would follow your bible, CLEARLY SAID," THOU SHALL NOT JUDGE"
Period, no if but or just this once and it's not right.
You then are in default and are casting stones...
If it is wrong DON'T WORRY. NOT YOUR PLACE TO JUDGE.
Can give advice, opinion but not your place to mold someone into what you think or hell bent on changing.
There are gay Christians, So one way or another God must have done something right because you both believe in same god.
It's your choice to believe or not to believe as the same as a gay person.

2007-03-13 14:45:16 · answer #10 · answered by Bluelady... 7 · 1 1

No one cannot for if he believes the Bible is the word of God then he knows homosexuality is not ok.

2007-03-13 14:39:33 · answer #11 · answered by Heaven's Messenger 6 · 4 2

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