whhich old testament book says that the israelites could have gentile slaves, but not israelite slaves?

Question

can you please tell where in the bible the answer is located

Answer 1

Slavery was an integral part of the ancient Near East. Along with other forms of forced labor, it was permitted in Israel.
Poor Israelites could sell themselves to richer neighbors out of economic necessity for specific periods of time.

Hebrew slaves were to be freed at periodic intervals. Non-Israelites could be enslaved permanently. Different from most forms of slavery, the slaves of Israelites retained some legal standing (for example, Ex. 21:26-27). This provided them limited protection.

Slavery and forced labor are mentioned in the Book of Joshua as if they were present during the conquest and tribal period.
However, these customs probably emerged during later times. Forms of slavery existed early on, but forced labor of free citizens seems to have been started by Solomon.
Furthermore, the editor of the Book of Joshua probably refers to enslaving Canaanites because it was evident they had never been exterminated.

When making a treaty, it was standard for the seeking party to subject itself to the other. So, according to the Book of Joshua, the Gibeonites became "hewers of wood and drawers of water" (9:21) for the Israelites.

Answer 2

In Exodus (right after the 10 commandments). It details the laws of keeping slaves. But you're wrong in assuming that slaves could only be gentiles. Slaves could be israelites as well. The difference is that israelite slaves go free after 6 years. Gentile slaves could only be freed by emancipation or by suffering certain injuries at the hand of his master.

Answer 3

actually it says that you can have Israelite slaves, but you have to give them the ablity to go free when the seven year cycle starts.