Some bible students believe that the pre-human Jesus is the "God" or "Jehovah" of the so-called "Old Testament".
Jehovah's Witnesses believe the bible to teach that there are several references to Jesus in the so-called "Old Testament" which indicate that he is distinct from the "God" or "Jehovah" of the so-called "Old Testament". It is not enough to simply assert that a doctrine is true, and so Jehovah's Witnesses reason from the Scriptures on the matter...
It seems rather obvious that the apostle Luke at Acts 4:25-27 quotes from Psalms 2:1,2. Although these passages are part of the Christian and Hebrew Scriptures respectively, BOTH passages make it plain that there is an "anointed one" who is distinct from God. The Psalm plains calls that God by the name "Jehovah" (explicitly using the Tetragrammaton) and Acts plainly calls the anointed one by the name "Jesus".
(Psalm 2:1,2) [David wrote] Why have the nations been in tumult and the national groups themselves kept muttering an empty thing? 2 The kings of earth take their stand And high officials themselves have massed together as one against Jehovah and against his anointed one
(Acts 4:24-27) [Peter, John, and fellow Christians] with one accord raised their voices to God and said: “Sovereign Lord, you are the One who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and all the things in them, 25 and who through holy spirit said by the mouth of our forefather David, your servant, ‘Why did nations become tumultuous and peoples meditate upon empty things? 26 The kings of the earth took their stand and the rulers massed together as one against Jehovah and against his anointed one.’ 27 Even so, both Herod and Pontius Pilate with men of nations and with peoples of Israel were in actuality gathered together in this city against your holy servant Jesus
Similarly, the apostle Paul at 1 Cor 2:16 and Rom 11:33,34 paraphrases Isaiah 40:13. Note that Isaiah explicitly uses the name "Jehovah" (the Hebrew Tetragrammaton), and 1 Corinthians plainly CONTRASTS the mind of Jehovah with the mind of Christ Jesus.
(1 Corinthians 2:16) For “who has come to know the mind of Jehovah, that he may instruct him?” But we do have the mind of Christ.
(Romans 11:33-34) O the depth of God’s riches and wisdom and knowledge! How unsearchable his judgments are and past tracing out his ways are! 34 For “who has come to know Jehovah’s mind, or who has become his counselor?”
(Isaiah 40:13) Who has taken the proportions of the spirit of Jehovah, and who as his man of counsel can make him know anything?
2007-03-14 10:09:29
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answer #1
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answered by achtung_heiss 7
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You're using a Hebrew text as your example. Perhaps the Hebrew reason should apply, rather than a Christian interpretation.
LORD is the printed convention for showing where the Tetragramaton, the sacred name, occurs in Torah and other Jewish texts. You know, the one that Jews never write. Lord means the word adonai, master.
It's not a psalm of David. It's l'david mizmore, a psalm for David.
The psalmist is saying. "G-d, said to David, my king/master/lord, Sit at My right hand, Till I make Your enemies Your footstool." Which sounds rather like something you'd hear in a royal court. Making prophecy out of it is dangerous.
And keep in mind, if you insist on claiming that it refers to Jesus, that Lord is always human, never divine. The Hebrew usage undermines every argument that Jesus was divine.
Or you can just acknowledge that it isn't a messianic prophecy and it isn't about Jesus.
2007-03-13 16:34:01
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answer #2
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answered by The angels have the phone box. 7
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The word is translated lord. The difference in the capitalization is on which lord the passage is talking about. It is similar to the places where you see "god" and "God" in the same passage. It means a different person. Refer to the front of your Bible for a guide to the titles and names of God. English is more difficult to translate into that some other languages. But, I agree-we must settle on a name and stick with it-problem is getting all the publishers to do the same.
2007-03-13 16:16:47
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answer #3
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answered by Mr Marc 3
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The all cap version represents YHVH or "Jehovah," the "covenant name" of God. The "Lord" version is usually adonai, a Hebrew term meaning "lord." This should be explained in the introductory material for the translation you are reading.
...I have found a FEW places where the caps version is used in error, so check it before you consider it authoritative.
2007-03-13 16:14:36
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Psalms 110
1 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool. 2 The LORD shall send the rod of thy strength out of Zion: rule thou in the midst of thine enemies. 3 Thy people shall be willing in the day of thy power, in the beauties of holiness from the womb of the morning: thou hast the dew of thy youth. 4 The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek. 5 The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath. 6 He shall judge among the heathen, he shall fill the places with the dead bodies; he shall wound the heads over many countries. 7 He shall drink of the brook in the way: therefore shall he lift up the head.
2007-03-13 16:14:49
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answer #5
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answered by deacon 6
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The capital letters are in English. The original was not written in English. Did the original have anything like capital letters?
No one knows. You know why? Because not only do we not have the originals, we don't have the copies of the copies of the copies of the copies of the copies of the copies of the originals. Anything could have happened between what was originally put down and what was translated/mistranslated/copied/miscopies.
To ascribe all kinds of contemporary significance to a collection of books that was written thousands of years ago strikes me as very strange. To apply significance to how English characters look in certain versions of the Bible is, to my mind, extremely silly.
2007-03-13 16:13:39
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answer #6
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answered by pasdeberet 4
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The thing that you misunderstand is the Greek Septuagint uses the Greek word "Kurios" to replace the
tetragrammaton (××××) when they translated the Hebrew to Greek.
Therefore, in the Septuagint, the verse goes like this:
Koine Greek: "αλληλοÏ
ια εξομολογηÏομαι Ïοι κÏ
Ïιε εν ολη καÏδια μοÏ
εν βοÏ
λη εÏ
θειÏν και ÏÏ
ναγÏγη"
You can see "κÏ
Ïιε" (Kurios) speaking to "καÏδια." (Kurio) These are from the same root word meaning "Lord."
Matthew's Gospel (22:42-46) has Jesus quoting this verse, while He was proving to the religious leaders of His day that He was who He said He was.
2007-03-13 16:40:42
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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It is conventional in English translations to translate the name Yahweh in all capitals LORD. So any time you see all uppercase "LORD" that really says "Yahweh" in the original.
So, it says "Yahweh said to my Lord."
This Psalm is being spoken not BY David, but by someone who is under David - someone whom David rules. This could have been said to the king at his coronation. So "my lord" is the king - whoever the davidic king was at the time of the coronation.
2007-03-13 16:17:14
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answer #8
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answered by Heron By The Sea 7
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Jehovah is GOD, and our Lord and Saviour is Jesus Christ, the son of GOD. Thank you and I hope this clears up any confusion, however you can always refer to The Holy Bible. Thank you and may GOD bless.
2007-03-13 16:11:49
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answer #9
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answered by cookie 6
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the only one's who are confused are those that think the 'small lord' refers to Jesus. It doesn't. It refers to David.
End of discussion.
2007-03-13 16:23:19
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answer #10
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answered by mzJakes 7
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