Often wondered...
2007-03-13 04:18:03 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Food & Drink ➔ Beer, Wine & Spirits
1 part @ 40% would be equal to 8 parts @ 5%.
To demonstrate
100 ml of vodka * .40 = 40 ml pure alcohol
800 ml beer * .05 = 40 ml pure alcohol
2007-03-13 04:26:54 · answer #1 · answered by Rockin' Mel S 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
all the legal or medical definitions say that one shot = one beer = one glass of wine. These are averages of course, 40% is a usual strength and so is 5% for beer and wine is usually about 11%.
2007-03-13 11:24:34 · answer #2 · answered by tomhale138 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
1 shot = 1 drink
1 12 oz beer = 1 drink
1 (4 or 5) oz glass of wine = 1 drink
2007-03-13 18:48:21 · answer #3 · answered by chefck26 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
8 shots of larger
2007-03-13 11:25:09 · answer #4 · answered by Wonka 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Generally a beer has one shot of equivalent alcohol.
2007-03-13 11:25:30 · answer #5 · answered by Bigdog 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one drink
2007-03-13 12:13:15 · answer #6 · answered by John Redcorn 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋