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2007-03-13 03:00:30 · 11 answers · asked by Ana_doe 1 in Food & Drink Other - Food & Drink

11 answers

According to some sources, pomme frites (fried potatoes) first appeared in Paris in the 1840s and were immediately popular. The popularity -- and the dish -- spread to this country, where they were called (not surprisingly) "French fried potatoes," a name later shortened to "french fries."

According to other sources, Thomas Jefferson introduced them to the colonies in the late 18th century after spending time in France (where he was introduced to them).

Still other sources acknowledge that Jefferson served some kind of fried potato but question whether he actually introduced the french fry (and go into things like reviews of his receipts/notes from Paris, and menus from dinners he hosted...fun fun!)

In cooking, to "french" something means to cut it into long, thin strips, but based on the timing of the appearance of the Pomme Frites and the first reference to the term "french" as a cooking term (according to the OECD that didn't happen until near the end of the 19th century), it seems that the term "french fries" originated in reference to the country of origin of the dish (France) and not to the cooking term "frenching."

(Incidentally, the Belgians claim to have originated the french fry but there's no evidence...and apparently they do concede that it *could* have been the French after all.

And some even say they were originally called "German fries," with a later name change for political reasons!)

So it's pretty clear they originated in France...I think it's likely the word "French" refers to the country or origin and not the method in which the potatoes are cut....and it's unclear exactly when they first appeared in this country (at least, in the form we think of as french fries).

2007-03-13 03:20:30 · answer #1 · answered by ljb 6 · 0 0

French-fried potatoes were probably invented in France or Belgium during the 18th century, and the name "French" was applied to them in English in the 19th century. However, there are various more-or-less plausible alternative theories.


The culinary origin of the term is a straightforward explanation of the term is that it means 'potatoes fried in the French manner': the verb 'to fry' can mean either sautéing or deep-fat frying, while French 'frire' unambiguously means deep frying. Thomas Jefferson, famous for serving French dishes, referred to fried potatoes in this way. Is thought to have brought it back from France.

It is sometimes suggested that the verb 'to french' originally meant to julienne-cut. But this term refers specifically to trimming the meat off the shanks of chops and is not attested until after 'French fried potatoes' had appeared.

2007-03-13 04:00:07 · answer #2 · answered by Bigdog 5 · 0 0

The potatoes are cut in 'julian' strips ( a French method) That's why we call 'em French Fries. Note that we also have curly fries and steak fries....which are prepared the same way but cut differently so they aren't called French Fries.

2007-03-13 03:10:21 · answer #3 · answered by Elt 5 · 1 1

French fries are french-cut potatoes. French fries are actually from Belgium! Ever try them with mayonnaise? Wonderful! Kinda like putting sour cream on your baked potato!

2007-03-13 03:13:39 · answer #4 · answered by Tom ツ 7 · 0 1

The straightforward explanation of the term is that it means 'potatoes fried in the French manner': the verb 'to fry' can mean either sautéing or deep-fat frying, while French 'frire' unambiguously means deep frying.

2007-03-13 03:06:18 · answer #5 · answered by leedsmikey 6 · 0 0

they were originally called english fries in the early 20th century but after a small war with france, which they won, they insisted on us calling them french fries

2007-03-13 11:21:06 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The same reason you get french chalk,french kisses,
french letters,and a lot more. if some think a bit different
french was added.

2007-03-13 03:26:16 · answer #7 · answered by Edd e 7 · 0 0

Don't know as they have nothing to do with the French or the way they Fry... lol

Today= just for today = I too shall ponder the reason *why*

2007-03-13 03:04:10 · answer #8 · answered by H.O.T. Dog 6 · 0 0

To "french" any food means to cut it into pieces of basically equal thickness. The potatoes are cut to the same thickness so the cooking, in this case frying, can be done evenly.

2007-03-13 03:10:37 · answer #9 · answered by baker girl 1 · 1 1

because the potatos are "frenched" , that is, cut into thin strips. This is often done with vegetables, like carrots or parsnips.

2007-03-13 03:37:31 · answer #10 · answered by zzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz 4 · 1 0

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