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It can be phrased in different ways, but the idea is clear. Where does it come from? Who originated it?

You lose the argument at the moment when you concede to your opponent the right to define the language used.

2007-03-12 18:10:02 · 3 answers · asked by fra59e 4 in Education & Reference Quotations

Did Socrates express this idea? If so, where?

Do we let George Bush get away with murder by talking about "defeat" and "victory" and "achieving our objective" without telling us exactly how we would know if and when defeat or victory has happened?

Do atheists accept marginalization by allowing themselves to be defined by what they do not accept, rather than by what they do accept, a position implicit in the very word "atheist", as if theism is an accepted norm?

2007-03-12 19:27:57 · update #1

3 answers

sure

2007-03-12 18:16:30 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

I also could not find who said it but it sounds like Socrates.

He said the first thing to do in a debate is to define your terms. That way the other guy can not get out of answering the question by using a vague definition. (Does Bill Clinton asking for the definition of "sex" ring a bell?)

2007-03-12 19:12:47 · answer #2 · answered by forgivebutdonotforget911 6 · 0 0

I'm afraid I checked all my sources when you asked this question last night and couldn't find it then either. But at least I understand what you're getting at, and it does ring bells for me too. If it comes to me I'll let you know.

2007-03-12 18:57:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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