What does this say in Greek?

2 ⤊

What does this say in Greek?

ει ο θεος υπερ ημων τις καθ ημων
I took out the first part of it because from what i understand is the question, i just wanted the answer. what it should translate to is . If God is for us, who can be against us? The verse is Romans 8:31 in the Bible

2007-03-12 14:13:52 · 2 answers · asked by sjsugiant 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages

2 answers

If God [be] for us, who [can be] against us?

2007-03-13 09:54:53 · answer #1 · answered by vivet 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋

And that's exactly what it translates to. I don't really understand what you're asking. It looks a bit strange at first because there are no verbs, but it was quite common in classical and koine Greek to omit eimi (to be). Anyway, a bit more clarity in the question would help make the answer a lot more detailed.

2007-03-12 21:45:37 · answer #2 · answered by ithyphallos 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋