In the four gospels when he talks to the deciples about his death and the second coming, why does he refer to himself as the son of man instead of the son of God. If someone claims to be the second coming of Jesus basing their claim on that the second coming of Jesus was going to be a man from earth, how can you disprove his doctrine?
2007-03-12 06:14:23 · 5 answers · asked by jojo9 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
As for the first part of your question, the phrase "son of man" has two meanings. One, it is used in the psalms as a poetic way of saying that a person is human (Jesus was letting us know that he was one of us). Two, the phrase "THE son of man" is a reference to a specific messianic prophecy in the book of Daniel (he was claiming to be the Messiah).
As for the second coming, Jesus gave specific prophecies, and gave warnings about false messiahs. try reading the gospels, and you will find your answer.
2007-03-12 06:23:22 · answer #1 · answered by Randy G 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The son of man the son of God.
God made adam and eve and they had childern they were the in effect childern of god. Christ was born of man so he was the son of man and the son of god.
Great question many people do not think to ask it.
2007-03-12 13:18:44 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it was simply because he was born from a woman for the first time and he was God in the body of a human.
2007-03-12 13:18:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Joseph gets Mary knocked up. They get worried because they're not married. Mary makes up some b.s. story about her baby being the son of god. Jesus never siad he was the son of god. He was the son of a man named Joseph. the Bible contradicts the Christians. Thank you made my day.
2007-03-12 13:19:33 · answer #4 · answered by AJ F 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Because he was made in God's image,
just like everyone else is.
2007-03-12 13:19:05 · answer #5 · answered by אידיאליסטי™ 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋