If Marry was married to Joseph then was she fornicating with God?

Question

I asked this question and a few answers that Marry was not married at the time when she was impregnanted by God. If that was the case, where is the proof and please quote the versus that clearly states that she was not married at the time.

Tracy thanks for not reading my question properly.

Daniel thats close but not close enough.

Brown : Thanks for the quoted verses but you missed out on what I asked, "where did it say that Jospeh was engaged or even promised to him"?

Look i have read the bible and found no such statement that Mary was engaged, promised or what ever you want to call it.

Birds : You are the winner here. Now lets look at it in prospective, you see Jesus was the Son of God and Marry but Joseph was a bystandered in this arrangement. He was married to her right? so what kinda God do you have that will invade the privacy of a married couple? this sounds very pagan to me.

For all of you that are lost and have no clue about your own bible, look at this >>>>>>> and you will find that She was married to him at the time!!!!

http://www.blueletterbible.org/kjv/Mat/Mat001.html

Answer 1

Mary & Joseph was married at the time that Mary was concieved by the Holy Ghost, & no it was not fornication nor adultry, because there was no sex act invovled. Joseph & Mary did NOT have any sexual relationship until after Jesus was born. You can find that Joseph & Mary was husband & wife in St. Matt.1:18-19-------------John S, you don't need to try to twist my answer around, Mary was not committing adultry nor fornication & neither was God, this conception was done not by sex act but by supernatural act. God created the seed, & God also Created a womb in Mary besides her original womb in order to carry a sinless child. Not even Mary's blood ever went into Jesus while Jesus was in her womb. Mary's blood stop at the ubelical cord, So don't try to make it look like i said God comitted fornication or adultry, You said that not me.

Answer 2

Mary asked, how could it be so as she did not know man. The angel replied "the Holy Spirit will come upon thee and the power of the Most High shall overshadow thee; and therefore the Holy One to be born shall be called the Son of God. Luke 1:35

Mary was a son girl who did not know Man so she would have been unmarried.

Joseph (Mathew 1:20-21) But while he thought on these things, behold an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream," Do no be afraid Joseph Son of David , to take Mary as they wife.

The was also Oral Tradition which would have been passed on telling more details to the early Church Fathers.

Answer 3

Before the miraculous conception of Jesus was announced, Mary had become engaged to a man named Joseph, who was thus to become Jesus' adoptive father.

Luke 1:30-38 states "30 So the angel said to her: “Have no fear, Mary, for you have found favor with God; 31 and, look! you will conceive in your womb and give birth to a son, and you are to call his name Jesus. 32 This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High; and Jehovah God will give him the throne of David his father, 33 and he will rule as king over the house of Jacob forever, and there will be no end of his kingdom.”

34 But Mary said to the angel: “How is this to be, since I am having no intercourse with a man?” 35 In answer the angel said to her: “HOLY SPIRIT will come upon you, and power of the Most High will overshadow you. For that reason also what is born will be called holy, God’s Son. 36 And, look! Elizabeth your relative has also herself conceived a son, in her old age, and this is the sixth month for her, the so-called barren woman; 37 because with God no declaration will be an impossibility.” 38 Then Mary said: “Look! Jehovah’s slave girl! May it take place with me according to your declaration.” At that the angel departed from her. "



You have to read the whole passage. Luke 1:27 states: 27 to a virgin promised in marriage to a man named Joseph of David’s house; and the name of the virgin was Mary.

There, promised in marriage is the same as saying someone was engaged.



And you must not have a clue as to what 'espoused' really meant in the form it was written. Look at other forms of the word 'espoused' in the bible then:
http://bible.cc/matthew/1-18.htm

Espoused can mean to make one's own or to give in marriage or take to have as one's own. Prepare to be anothers.

Answer 4

Matthew 1:18: Mary and Joseph were engaged but not living together. Matthew 1:19: Joseph planned to dismiss her. Luke 1:27: a virgin engaged to Joseph.

So Mary was engaged to Joseph but not married to him (because if they were married they would be having sex). Engagement was a more serious step than today: if the couple engaged in sex and got pregnant (or caught) the marriage was simply moved up. But if the woman got pregnant by someone else it was similar to adultery.

The word fornication is inappropriate not because Mary wasn't married but because she did not have sex. The word 'impregnanted' is misleading because it usually means 'made pregnant by a man who had sex with her'. In this case Jesus was conceived not by fornication or adultery, but by the power of the Holy Spirit, with the agreement of Mary.

Answer 5

She was engaged to Joseph not married to when she conceived Jesus. And no, It was the angel Gabriel that come to Mary telling her that she was going to give birth to a son. An angel also come to Jospeh telling him not to have sexual relations with Mary until the baby was born. OK, as for the exact verse where it stats that he was not married to her yet,

Matthew 1:18

Now this is how Jesus the Messiah was born. His mother, Mary, was engaged to be married to Joseph. But while she was still a virgin, she became pregnant by the holy sprit.

Answer 6

Matthew 1 is about Jesus' genealogy and virgin birth. It says of Joseph and Mary that he knew her not TIL after Jesus was born. Then she was as a regular married woman with Joseph.. She was not a virgin all of her life as some groups believe. She did not fornicate as you say because she did not have intercourse. It was artificial insemination by the Holy Spirit. Have a great day. Mmm

Answer 7

Mary was always a virgin, before during and after giving birth, she went to Heaven a virgin, incidentally St. Joseph was also always a virgin and went back to heaven a virgin. They did not need to have physical intimacy. Their purpose of caring for the world's Redeemer is greater than any other job a person could ever have anywhere, so they had infinite job satisfaction .

Answer 8

Matthew 1:18

18This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was PLEDGED to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit.

Answer 9

if mary was married to joseph at the time god impregnated her, then she would be guilty of adultery and, by his own laws, god would have to stone himself to death along with mary....lol...however, mary actually had earthly sex with a roman soldier and got pregnant...oooooopppps...and so, the way this situation was often handled in those days was to claim divine intervention, (in fact, there was a town in greece where this became so common that 'virgin birth' was outlawed as an excuse for out-of-wedlock pregnancies) thereby saving mary's virtue and jowsephs reputation...but they did have to leave town in order for mary to have the baby...ancient sensibilities being what they were at the time, probably some of their friends did not approve!...lol

Answer 10

Joseph didn't touch Mary until after Jesus was born.