How many of you know that this verse (1 John 5:7) of the bible was added by a catholic in the third century meaning that wasn´t written by John the apostle, you don´t believe me go and checked more recent catholic bible and wonder why a whole verse was added in the bible to prove something? why you need to lie to prove that you say the truth?
2007-03-11 16:33:43 · 17 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think you need to re-check your info. I have studied Bible History. The difference between what you have been taught, and the factual basis in the historicity of the Bible, is that you are relying on a Cathiloc dispute.
The Cathiloc Bible is substantially different, we all know that already.
2007-03-11 16:37:10 · answer #1 · answered by sweetie_baby 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
What Catholic bible are you supposedly using? Is it really a Catholic bible? Or just saying that it is?
Do you honestly have proof of this? Or are you just rambling ignorance?
If you really had proof that there was something added to the bible - real cold hard truth - then it would be ground breaking. It would make headlines. Non-believers would be all over it.
The truth is you don't have any facts to back this up. And it is apparent you don't know a lot about the history of the NT. If you did, as a non-believer, you wouldn't think that John wrote any part of it. There's no proof of that either. Just tradition.
*edit* And by the way - the Catholic bible isn't different in the NT. I know non-Catholic Christians are taught that, but it's not true. Want to know for sure? Pick up a bible and compare. Catholics don't have extra verses in the NT books, nor secret messages.
And did you know that the first bible version we have - the Latin Vulgate, the first complete bible - was translated by a Catholic? Which was later used to create the King James Version.
2007-03-11 16:38:24 · answer #2 · answered by noncrazed 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Dude, chill out already. I'm not sure if I'm getting the exact gist of your commentary/question, but my NAB Bible (New American Bible, a Catholic Bible) says it like this for vv 6-8.
"This is the one who came through water and blood, Jesus Christ, not by water alone, but by water and blood. The Spirit is the one that testifies, and the Spirit is truth. So there are three that testify, the Spirit, the water, and the blood, and the three are of one accord.
I would just like to add one more thing. "Living the Word's" response directly above mine, or at least it was before I edited this, was absolutely right on the mark."
2007-03-11 16:44:02 · answer #3 · answered by soulguy85 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible as we read it is a collection of works cobbled together throughout history, edited and re-edited at the whim of pope or king or monk. Mary Magdalen had her own gospel, but because she was branded a whore, it got left out by some religious notary as being apocryphal. King James of Britain and Scotland had his own version, used for centuries, that was based more on the way he thought it should be. With so many cooks in the kitchen, how is it possible the original message survivied? It hasn't. Thus it's pretty easy to insert a verse here a section there to validated a point.
2007-03-11 16:42:27 · answer #4 · answered by aspartaimee 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1 john 5:6-12
And Jesus Christ was revealed as God’s Son by his baptism in water and by shedding his blood on the cross—not by water only, but by water and blood. And the Spirit, who is truth, confirms it with his testimony. So we have these three witnesses-- the Spirit, the water, and the blood—and all three agree. Since we believe human testimony, surely we can believe the greater testimony that comes from God. And God has testified about his Son. All who believe in the Son of God know in their hearts that this testimony is true. Those who don’t believe this are actually calling God a liar because they don’t believe what God has testified about his Son.
And this is what God has testified: He has given us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. Whoever has the Son has life; whoever does not have God’s Son does not have life.
I don't read the catholic bible... but i do read the Holy Bible and this is how it is stated in mine... I read the Word and ask God to reveal His truths thru it... and God does....
2007-03-11 16:43:48 · answer #5 · answered by livinintheword † 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
you do no longer could go a great way in the bible to ascertain trinity: Genesis 3:22 "And our lord god reported, Behold guy is grow to be as one human beings..." Us in better than one, God is a identify, created from 3 workplaces yet one spirit. Emmanuel is God with us, God grew to become into with us in the call of Jesus. Jesus reported I and my Father are one. God does not have a Father, subsequently the virgin delivery, no longer born by technique of guy, conceived in the Holy Ghost. If God would be unable to grant us one e book this is genuine, then he particularly does not be that vast of God, no longer worth. human beings have been attempting to disprove God's be conscious for an prolonged time, seem at this, seem at that, I ha! moments in case you will. i do no longer think in God because of the fact of what i've got studied or with what somebody else has confident me, yet by technique of the Holy Ghost that God makes use of to evangelise his be conscious. you are able to the two take it or go away it, and by technique of how , the bible teaches that still.
2016-09-30 13:21:24 · answer #6 · answered by ilsa 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are tons more scriptures about the trinity than that. Anyway, Those of us who believe the truth about God have so much going for us. I would never give up the gifts, talents, love, peace, joy in life, or the gifts of the Holy Spirit or the pleasure of worshiping in the Holy Spirit of God for a silly lie, like denying the trinity.
2007-03-11 16:38:35 · answer #7 · answered by Makemeaspark 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Which evidence do you have that it is a 3rd Century addition? My copy of the Textus Receptus, Byzantine Codex, Tischendorf and Westcott-Hort Greek all include it, so which Uncials apparently lack this?
P.S. 1 John was written by Polycarp, the follower of John.
2007-03-11 16:41:32 · answer #8 · answered by kmsbean 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
NO! Not the 3rd century! It was MUCH later. It is NOT FOUND in ANY MANUSCRIPT or TRANSLATION BEFORE THE 14TH CENTURY.
BUT, it is NOT the basis of any important Biblical teaching...
Paul called Jesus "God" in Titus 2:13.
Jesus was called Immanuel in Matthew, who was quoting Isaiah. This MEANS "God WITH US."
There are MANY passages where the Spirit is personified.
This essential teaching about the nature of God IS NOT BASED on this SPURIOUS READING, but is found penned by many different individuals in BOTH the Old and New Testaments, at different times under different circumstances.
2007-03-11 16:38:11 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
one; how many times has the Bible been translated anyway we don't know how many verses have been change do we so i suggest that when we read ask God for the true meaning it is his word anyway if you want to know the truth ask the auther for his inturpitation, are you his english teacher?
2007-03-11 16:55:21 · answer #10 · answered by Fisherofmen 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋