And a woman's.
2007-03-11 10:03:49
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answer #1
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answered by lulu 6
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What about gloves?
Looking forward to hear a good answer to that because this has puzzled me before!!!
In French, if there is 2 separate items then they are a pair...
2007-03-11 17:01:36
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answer #2
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answered by Pois Chiche 2
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because they are all plural....pants. trousers, socks, knickers, shoes.
you can't have a knicker, or pant but you can have a sock or shoes but they come as a pair.
it doesn't work above the waist because they are all singular. shirt, tie, jacket, blouse etc.
You can have two shirts and call them a pair of shirts, but they are singular because you only need to buy one at a time
2007-03-11 18:19:58
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answer #3
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answered by snapdragon747 5
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must be for the pair of leg holes...it dont sound right though saying "i'm going to buy a knicker" does it..
2007-03-11 17:12:01
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answer #4
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answered by chris w. 7
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good question.but why do we women have a pair of knickers,also puzzling innit? xx
2007-03-11 17:04:42
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answer #5
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answered by SUZANNE R 7
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cuz u have TWO legs, so they'd have to come in pairs
2007-03-11 17:01:56
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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One item isn't..
⥠Clare.
2007-03-11 16:59:37
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answer #7
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answered by Couture Clare 2
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Yes No maybe So
2007-03-11 17:02:36
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answer #8
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answered by Julie R 2
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