2007-03-10 18:20:05 · 13 answers · asked by manna eater 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
he probably had as much free will as anyone can have when their lives have been all planned for them long before they were born, and that someone has been fed, all their lives, that they are on a mission from god.
2007-03-10 18:52:35 · answer #1 · answered by gwenwifar 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was both God and man. They call that the hypostatic union. He was true humanity and undiminished Deity all in one body. Therefore, any question asked about Jesus would necessarily have 2 answers. Was Jesus omnicient(did He have all knowledge)? His Deity certainly was omniscient. But His humanity wasn't. Mark 13:32 says "But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, NOR THE SON, but the Father alone". Luke 2:40 says of Jesus, "And the Child continued to grow and become strong, increasing in wisdom; and the grace of God was upon Him". How can you "increase in wisdom" if you already know everything? In His humanity, He was not omnicient. It says that He hungered. His humanity was what hungered, not His deity. Deity cannot hunger. It says He thirsted. His humanity thirsted. Deity cannot thirst. Could Christ have sinned? Again, His humanity could have sinned but freely chose not to. As God He could not sin. God cannot sin. For example, the bible says "it is impossible for God to lie"(Hebrews 6:18).
Yet, Jesus was, "in all points tempted as we are yet without sin"(Hebrews 4:15). That is to say while He never sinned, He was really tempted and therefore it was really possible for Him to sin. Other wise, His temptation would have been a farce. Jesus possessed the power of free choice, Which means that whatever moral choice He made, He could have done otherwise. That means when He chose not to sin(which was always), He could have sinned(but did not) as man.
2007-03-11 04:09:35 · answer #2 · answered by upsman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As his heart was said to be pure, I doubt if he had a sinful thought which comes before a sinful deed. His life was at the will of his father in heaven...just as believers of today. Jesus set us the example...not that we are capable of being like him otherwise.
2007-03-11 03:26:00 · answer #3 · answered by Poohcat1 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus had the same rights as any human man. Jesus had the power to overcome all sin his entire life.
Jesus Christ is the only sin less man that ever lived and He conquered death
for the remission of our sins
amen
2007-03-11 03:24:25 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Jesus had free will.
Remember on the night before Jesus was crucified, He asked God to 'take this cup away from me'....
Not that that was wrong.
2007-03-11 03:24:13 · answer #5 · answered by doublewidemama 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
He had a free will. He was capable of doing wrong but He did not. He fulfilled the OT prophecy.
2007-03-11 03:27:53 · answer #6 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Tough question. No he did not have free will. His mission from the second he was born was to preach the word of God. Also religion does NOT allow free will, at least not the Catholic one.
2007-03-11 03:24:06 · answer #7 · answered by Lynnemarie 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Wow, that's a tough one. I think he could've but he already knew what he was here for and he wouldn't want to set the wrong example when he's teaching men what's right and what's wrong.
2007-03-11 03:24:14 · answer #8 · answered by Cardiophobia <3 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
When you come to the understanding and realize that Jesus Christ is God then you will have the answer to your question.><>
2007-03-11 03:23:41 · answer #9 · answered by CEM 5 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He could choose to, but in carrying out the action it would become right (since it was an act of god). Or some such nonsense.
2007-03-11 03:23:25 · answer #10 · answered by neil s 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋