What does the bible say about homosexuals?

Question

I've heard people saying that the bible says homosexuality is a sin then I hear other people saying that there's nothing in the bible that says this.

Who's right?

Is there a chapter in the bible or verse, etc?

Answer 1

The Bible does NOT condemn homosexuals and does NOT consider homosexual sex a sin.

The passages in Leviticus (18:22 and 20:13), understood IN THE CONTEXT of the time and place, are not an admonishment against loving sexual relationships between people of the same sex but instead against sex as a form of domination and control. Besides, these passages are part of the Holiness Code which is not binding to modern day Christians (or anyone else for that matter).

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah was a warning against rape, inhospitality and xenophobia. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshiping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned. If Jude 1:7 describes anything about the sexual immorality and perversion in Sodom and Gomorrah, it's describing RAPE.

1 Corinthians 6:9 was a mistranslation of the word "malakee". It's used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.

1 Timothy 1:9-10? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.

The words "physin" and "paraphysin" in Romans 1:26-27 have also been mistranslated. Contrary to popular belief, the word "paraphysin" does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word "paraphysin" is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it implies that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.

Answer 2

The two most common passages cited are Romans 1:18-32 (especially verses 26 & 27) and 1 Corinthians 6:9-20. Most people have noted that the Greek word in 1 Corinthians 6:9 that is translated into English as “homosexual” in the NIV literally means “soft” ("PC Study Bible", Greek/English Dictionary). The NASB translates this word into English as “effeminate” to better match the context (Paul appears to be using a figure of speech here). Even if the passage in 1 Corinthians is considered to be ambigious, note that the passage in Romans chapter 1 is so explicit that it is very difficult to misinterpret or mistranslate what Paul was getting at.

Jesus also defined marriage as between a male and a female in Matthew 19:1-12, and declared that any other type of sexual activity violates God’s original intent for creating sex in the first place. Jesus said that anyone how could not accept God’s decree should remain celibate (literally, a “eunuch”).

There are also certain chapters in Leviticus in the Old Testament that forbids certain sexual activity, such as sex with animals, adultery, incest, etc. Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 expressly forbids homosexuality. There is some debate as to how much of the Law of Moses still applies to gentiles under the New Testament. It seems clear from what Jesus and the apostles taught, however, that Jesus intended for the sexual morality laws of the Laws of Moses to be incorporated by reference into the New Testament (See Mark 7:1-23; Acts 15; and, Galatians 5:13-26; for examples).

Answer 3

The bible does say that homosexuality is a sin. Here are some versus that may be helpful.

Leviticus 18:22 – “Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable.”

1 Corinthians 6:9-10 – “Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.”

Homosexuality would be considered a habitual sin and since God hates sin a habitual sin is considered pretty bad. A non -habitual sin, for example is not as bad since you can ask forgiveness and not commit the sin anymore. All sin though is considered the same whether it be telling a lie or murder.

I do want to say that although I believe it is a sin, I do NOT condemn homosexuals at all. I love them just as I do any sinner because I too am a sinner.

Answer 4

God's word is not changing just the way people interpret it. I suggest that those that say that this is not a sin they need to read these scriptures and do some research. (Genesis 19:1-13) (Leviticus 18:22) (Romans 1:26-27) (1Corinthians 6:9).. I hope that these scriptures give you some clarity or insight for yourself concerning this topic. Have a blessed and wonderful day!

Answer 5

English Standard Version

1Co 6:9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality,

1Ti 1:8 Now we know that the law is good, if one uses it lawfully,
1Ti 1:9 understanding this, that the law is not laid down for the just but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who strike their fathers and mothers, for murderers,
1Ti 1:10 the sexually immoral, men who practice homosexuality, enslavers, liars, perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound doctrine,
1Ti 1:11 in accordance with the gospel of the glory of the blessed God with which I have been entrusted.

Answer 6

First, you don't understand the Bible. nutritional regulations have been given to Jews by no potential to non-Jews. Gentiles could desire to consume as plenty shell fish as they needed. Prohibitions against homosexuality at the instant are not chanced on basically in Leviticus. Their are quite a few mentions interior the hot testomony. as properly the be conscious "fornication" interior the hot testomony refers to sexual acts outdoors of marriage. The Bible no the place says that priest could be celibate. this could be a rule of the Roman Catholic church.

Answer 7

Well, I don't recall anything which specifically states it as sin, but there are several passages which people interpret as admonishments against homosexuality.

Gensesis 1 (Be fruitful and multiply)
Genesis 19 (Sodom and Gomorrah)
Leviticus 18:22
Leviticus 20:13
Deuteronomy 23:17
Romans 1
1 Corinthians 6
1 Timothy 1
and a few others.

There are plenty of criticism of each of these. For example, Deuteronomy 23:17 uses the term Qadesh, which literally means "holy one" and is actually a term for a temple prostitute. There is actually no reason to assume homosexuality, as the context in which it is generally used is clearly heterosexual in nature.

The passages in Leviticus are also arguably not about homosexuality, but more importantly, are not about sin, but rather ritual uncleanliness. Homosexual acts, if this is what is meant, are therefore akin to a woman who is menstruating or eating lobster, not to adultery, murder, lying, etc. Leviticus 18:22, for example, states כב ואת זכר--לא תשכב משכבי אשה תועבה הוא, which literally translated is "Not shall you lie with male [in the] bed of woman, [it is] against custom." The term used is tow'ebah, which does not mean sin.

The story of Sodom and Gomorrah is not about homosexuality at all, it is about Hebrew hospitality & pride. There are plenty of parallel stories in the Bible where it is clearly not sexual, yet some seem to think that this one is different. In Ezekial 16:49-50, however, it specifies that the sin of Sodom was that they were arrogant, overfed, unconcerned, and did not help the poor and needy. Jesus makes mention of this in Matthew 10:14-15 as the reason for Sodom's destruction.

Romans 1 is sometimes translated as "against God", which is certainly wrong, as the same phrase, παρα φυσιν, is used in other passages to refer to the acts of God. It literally means in excess of natural. This would imply that some level of whatever is being discussed is natural. Additionally, whatever action is being discussed, it is the punishment for the sin (idolatry), because society torments these people, but it is not the sin itself.

1 Corinthians 6:9 has malakoi and arsenokoitai each sometimes translated as homosexual. μαλακοι literally means soft and other texts almost exclusively use this as a term for lazy or weak. The "evidence" given for homosexual as a translation is usually that in Roman Antiquities, it refers to a man who was called μαλακοι, which it explains was either because he was lazy or because he was mocked as a woman. From this they get effeminite and from that they get homosexual, which is a bit of a stretch. αρσενοκοιται is clearly used in the earliest Greek translations of the Old Testament as a term for prostitute. Literally it means man of bed.

Answer 8

Leviticus 20:13

"If any one lie with a man as with a woman, both have committed an abomination, let htme be put to death: their blood be upon them."

Romans 1:27

"And, in like manner, the men also, leaving the natural use of the women, have burned in their lusts one towards another, men with men working that which is filthy, and receiving in themselves the reompense which was due to their error."

Homosexuality is clearly a sin against natural and divine law. Man and woman fit together like a puzzle piece. Why do you think God gave man a penis and a woman a vagina? Not for showmanship, but for the purpose of procreation. There's a reason why we ovulate and have periods. There's a reason why men produce sperm. It is very, very unnatural for a man to be with a man or for a woman to be with a woman. It doesn't fit and it doesn't fulfill the purpose of why God wants man and woman to be together. It's all common sense and right there in your bible.

Answer 9

Jude verse 7
Leviticus 18:22, 20:13
Romans 1:26-27, 32
1Corinthians 6:9-10
1Timothy 1:9-10

As for those who say it isn't in the bible;
2Peter 3:15-16

Answer 10

Lev 18:22-23 "You shall not lie with a male as one lies with a female; it is an abomination."

Lev 20:13 "If there is a man who lies with a male as those who lie with a woman, both of them have committed a detestable act; they shall surely be put to death."

1 Cor 6:9 "Or do you not know that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals"

1 Tim 1:9-10 "realizing the fact that (civil) law is not made for a righteous man, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers"

Rom 1:26-27 "For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error."

Answer 11

In reiteration and supplementation to what already is posted, the Bible CLEARLY forbids man laying with man as with women (Lv. 18:22) and as far back as approx. 2,000 years ago Scripture spoke of some sort of punishment that was prevalent among homosexuals as they burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is perverse, and receiving in themselves the punishment that was fitting (Rm. 1:27).

Over a half a million Americans alone have died because of AIDS, which initially was rampant among homosexuals and whose activity is still the primary cause of it's spread. This is sad because outside of transmission via blood transfusions (very rare), this is a diseas that is entirely preventable. Both pre marital sex of any kind as well as recreational drug use drug is contrary to the good laws and principals God gave us for our own good.

Though this is clear, many homosexuals resort to asserting that the Biblical prohibitions against homosexual activity is only against "sex as a form of domination and control," but nowhere is that even in the context or grammar! Rather texts such as Rm. 1:26, 27 condemn consensual homosexual relations of either gender.

That homosexual activity is a sin that must be repented of is made clearer by the FACT that NOWHERE in Scripture does God give the provision of marriage for same genders, as He abundantly does for heterosexuals. From the beginning God stated, "Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh" (Gen 2:24). The word for wife in Scripture always means female, as does mother, and husband means male. Every marriage in Scripture was between a man and a women, as God has made men and women uniquely compatible and complementary (not only physically, though that is most obvious), in ways men with men cannot be. This leaves all homo-sexual activity to be unholy and perverse fornication. And fornicators, like any unforgiven sin, will send you to the lake of Fire. Other pro-homosexual arguments are shown to be false here: http://peacebyjesus.witnesstoday.org/homosexual_refuted.html

But the Bible also says that many Christian even in that time were former homosexuals, and thus forgiveness and salvation is offered and can be received by them, if they will not spurn the grace of God, but turn to the Lord Jesus in repentance, and receive Him who die for us and rose again to save us. That is my prayer for all.