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..."tooth for a tooth",

Please explain, since they are both in the Old Testament and both condoned and smiled upon by God,
to throw huge rocks at your child's head, like a 12-15 year old kid, and blugone them to death, is that God "justice", Or how about killing those who don't keep the sabbath?

Is that a good example of an "eye for an eye"?

Please explain how this is not a contradiction limited to just the old testament,
or do you need the New Testament Jesus cancelled that out fall back?

2007-03-10 02:11:52 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Stoning them to death over virginity.

You do know they stoned people to death who were 'accused' of not being a virgin, right?
could you not figure that out or are you just playing that way?

2007-03-10 02:18:36 · update #1

7 answers

where, do tell, does it say in the Old Testament anything about stoning a child for virginity???? please give the scripture reference.

god bless

2007-03-10 02:15:40 · answer #1 · answered by happy pilgrim 6 · 0 2

We all fall short from the glory of God. God does not approve of all things recorded in the Bible. It is a record, you know. That is why Jesus came here to complete the law and share mercy and love. He did not let the men to stone a sinful woman. And she had had only 4 men in her life, how many women would be like that these days. We need Jesus.

2007-03-10 10:21:50 · answer #2 · answered by SeeTheLight 7 · 0 1

Well an eye for an eye a tooth for a tooth doesn't mean you actually TAKE an eye for an eye or a tooth for a tooth.

It's about proportionality. You are meant to turn the other cheek, but if you don't, you don't go overboard.

2007-03-10 10:30:14 · answer #3 · answered by irishcharmer84 2 · 0 0

they are not condoned and smiled upon by God ... thats old testament law for the Jews .. and for one thing "eye for an eye" wasnt referring to child punishment it was referring to revenge .. and for another Jesus taught that the more perfect way was to not resist evil and to turn the other cheek .. and "falling back on" having a complete knowledge of the bible and Gods word instead of taking things out of context i think is more educated ..

2007-03-10 10:21:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Nope, not a good example.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virgin#Religion

nor can i find any reasons to try and justify any of it - IT is all madness!
Most religions have something unpleasant about them, whether in the texts or in the way 'man' interprets them and passes that bigotry down to others!
Religion is the blight on the earth, because of the way'man' has defiled it!

2007-03-10 10:20:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

sure, stone them to death

2007-03-10 10:17:30 · answer #6 · answered by Violation Notice: Semper Paratus 4 · 0 1

A complete code of life

Islam is a religion, but not in the western meaning of religion. The western connotation of the term "religion" is something between the believer and God. Islam is a religion organizes all aspects of life on both the individual and national levels.




Islam organizes your relations with God, with yourself, with your children, with your relatives, with your neighbor, with your guest, and with other brethren. Islam clearly establishes your duties and rights in all those relationships.

Islam establishes a clear system of worship, civil rights, laws of marriage and divorce, laws of inheritance, code of behavior, what not to drink, what to wear, and what not to wear, how to worship God, how to govern, the laws of war and peace, when to go to war, when to make peace, the law of economics, and the laws of buying and selling. Islam is a complete code of life.

Islam is not for the mosque only, it is for daily life, a guide to life in all its aspects: socially, economically, and politically.

Islam is complete constitution. Thus Islam keeps the Muslim away from confusion, because Islam is logical and rational. Allah is one. Allah is one Allah has no sons. Allah is not trinity. Allah does not kill to save. No mediation is required between Allah and man. Islam organizes human nature, but does not go against it. There is not a class of clergy in Islam; nor is there celibacy. Islam is complete code of human life.

http://www.thetruecall.com/home/modules.php?name=News&file=article&sid=146


Gospel of the Kingdom of God

“Gospel of the Kingdom of God”

MARK 1:14 Now after that John was put in prison, Jesus came into Galilee, preaching the Gospel of The Kingdom of God

From the above Verse, it is clear that Christ, Jesus-The Son of Mary preached the Gospel of The Kingdom of God. This Gospel (The Good News) actually contained the Words of God because of course, it was the Gospel of The Kingdom of God which was preached ONLY by Jesus. There is not even anything as the Gospel of Jesus as noted by Mark 1:1. The words of the Gospel which Jesus (pbuh) preached, were not his words as he says:


JOHN 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and the word which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.

Matthew and John were actually the disciples of Jesus (pbuh). But did they really write these Gospels by themselves. Do we have Gospels “BY” Matthew and John? From an account in the Gospel of Matthew, we can clearly see that this Gospel is not written by Matthew himself:

MATTHEW 9:9 And as Jesus passed forth from thence, he saw a man, named Matthew, sitting at the receipt of custom: and he saith unto him, Follow me. And he arose, and followed him.

If Matthew would have been the author of this Gospel, he surely would have written that “.. and he saith unto “ME”… and “I” arose and followed him.”

Luke and Mark were not even the disciples of Jesus. Luke was a physician and a companion of St Paul and Mark was an interpreter who probably worked with St Peter in Rome.

The Gospels also differ from each other a lot:

Was Joseph the Son of Jacob (MATTHEW 1:16) or was he the Son of Heli (LUKE 3:23)?

Why isn’t the ascension of Jesus (pbuh) to heaven mentioned in Matthew and John?

These Gospels which were written down 100 Years after Jesus (pbuh) ascension, circulated anonymously, no names were attached to them until almost 200 and the Christian theologians who came up with the idea of having a New Testament was condemned as heretic.

Do we have that True Gospel which Jesus Christ (pbuh) Preached in Hebrew or Aramaic?
Did Jesus (pbuh) asked Matthew, Mark, Luke and John to write these Gospels?
How can Christians rely on the accounts in these Gospels which are the basic Pillars of their Faith?


http://www.thetruecall.com/home/modules.php?name=News&file=article&sid=268

2007-03-10 10:21:13 · answer #7 · answered by A2Z 4 · 0 2

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