Tell me the rule that should be used to calculate it...
Give me any references (preferable websites).
2007-03-09 22:23:12 · 3 answers · asked by David Junior 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
It is the base current that bias the op-amp.Vb= 0.7 volt. I e=I b+ I c.
2007-03-10 03:06:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the respond on your question relies upon on the particular op amp. In bipolar amps, the prejudice modern-day will in all probability substitute simply by fact the output voltage differences; this might reason a income errors. In FET or MOSFET amps, the prejudice modern-day won't substitute simply by fact the output voltage differences; this might reason a fastened offset.
2016-10-18 00:40:45 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is a small amount of current which flows back into the input of the op-amp
2007-03-09 22:57:00 · answer #3 · answered by physicist 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋