Why is the word 'got' so commonly added to the verb 'to have' when talking about possession? It serves no purpose and sounds mediocre.
Examples:
I have (got) two cats.
I've (got) tickets for the Cup final.
Have you got / Do you have any money?
2007-03-08 23:00:17 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
The word "get/got" is vastly overused in English. While we have all become (I almost sad "got" there!) used to slipping it into the spoken language, it is to be avoided in the written language when used in conjunction with another verb. However, it is useful in many ways when used on its own. http://www.edufind.com/english/grammar/GET.cfm
You are quite right in criticising English speakers for such lazy practices!
2007-03-08 23:14:51 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Appearantly no Brits have seen this one yet, and though I'm not a Brit, I am an English teacher living in Mexico who has read his share of grammar books from the British POV. This is one of the biggest differences between American English and the British variety. Some examples of the differences are as follows:
Brit= Have you got any sugar?
Amer= Do you have any sugar?
Brit= I haven't got any sugar.
Amer= I don't have any sugar.
The American construction of the verb 'has' works like all other verbs with the use of auxiliaries such as DO and DON'T for negatives and questions. The British construction works a bit differently, most notably in the negative. There are many idiosyncracies to American vs. British English.
In the future tense we always use 'will' in Amer English
I will go to bed.
You will go to bed.
We will go to bed.
They will go to bed.
He will go to bed.
She will go to bed.
It will go to bed.
The British variant uses 'shall' for 1st person singular and plural, as in:
I shall go to bed.
We shall go to bed.
'Will' is considered incorrect for these tenses.
So you see, it's not incorrect to use the 'got' construction, however it is misunderstood by many Americans. If you were to look up 'got' in a good dictionary, you would find about 80 different uses. It's the most difficult word to learn for second language learners because it has so many different uses in American English.
2007-03-09 00:44:29 · answer #2 · answered by ramblin' robert 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
To be honest, I'm not sure what the fuss is all about. It's perfectly grammatically-correct to use 'have got', plus 'I have a cat' sounds slightly stilted to be. It's just a matter of style and personal preference. The following links may be of use to you.
http://www.britishcouncil.org/learnenglish-central-grammar-have-v-have-got.htm
http://www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/learningenglish/grammar/learnit/learnitv323.shtml
http://esl.about.com/cs/beginner/a/beg_havegot.htm
http://www.learnenglish.org.uk/grammar/archive/have_got.html
[Edit:] As the answerer below said, nationality also plays a part in the 'have' v 'have got' debate, which might explain why the previous answerers have said that it's wrong to use 'have got'. Sorry, I assumed the other answerers were also British.
2007-03-09 00:40:55 · answer #3 · answered by jammycaketin 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
English is my second language so I'll attempt to explain it to you the way I understand why it is like it is.
When you have got a cat you actually saying that sometime in the past (time not specified) you acquired a cat. when you use the form 'have + third form of a verb' you state that you carried out something in the past but there's not time specified, for example, you could say that Yesterday afternoon I went to the RSPCA and I got a cat. In this sentence you use the past tense of get, which is got, this is simple past tense. So when I say that (unspecified time) I have aquired a cat, look, the cat is here now, you are in effect saying that 'I have got a cat'. Or I have got myself a cat (time unspecified in the past).
2007-03-08 23:14:00 · answer #4 · answered by Luvfactory 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually 'have' and 'have got' are used for possession, whereas 'have' is ONLY used when talking about actions.
Beginners English, Beare, 2002
SOURCE: studying linguistics currently
2007-03-09 04:28:06 · answer #5 · answered by chillipope 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Just another anomaly of the English language that makes it so hard for foreigners to learn!
2007-03-08 23:10:30 · answer #6 · answered by chip2001 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It can be useful if you're writing a song - e.g. 'Got the sun in the morning and the moon at night' and probably loads of others!
2007-03-08 23:11:14 · answer #7 · answered by mad 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
"have got" is a simple way for people who started to learn english...
but when you learn all tenses or your level is high,teachers tell that using "have" is more suitable than using "have got"
2007-03-08 23:05:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Bad grammar amuses me. I am just glad that I GOT brains!!
2007-03-08 23:07:58 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
What do you mean "sounds mediocre"?
2007-03-09 06:49:51 · answer #10 · answered by garik 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋