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24 nations (White/European/Caucasian nations) get a free pass into the US without ever having to apply for a Visa:

http://travel.state.gov/visa/temp/without/without_1990.html#countries

Andorra, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Liechtenstein, Luxembourg, Monaco, the Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, San Marino, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, United Kingdom.


Isn't it odd that all of these countries are European/White and get a free pass,
while the rest of the world must apply through harsher standards just to visit, much less immigrate?

Isn't it racist that the Visa Waiver Program is almost entirely for Whites?

2007-03-08 15:57:35 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Immigration

10 answers

i think so!!! but life isnt fair

2007-03-08 16:20:47 · answer #1 · answered by hello 2 · 1 1

Although I've answered many questions on race and immigration policies, on this one I've got to say NO it isn't racist.
The criteria for a country to benefit from the visa waiver program is standardized and mutually agreed upon between the US and those countries.
Any country can join if they choose but not many want to because depending on the country, having a visa waiver may actually have negative effects on that country's' tourism and immigration policies.
I mean the waiver goes both ways and not many countries want to be "flooded" with US citizens.

I think it all comes down to dollars and cents.

2007-03-08 16:16:06 · answer #2 · answered by revelation2us 2 · 1 0

Well, the program is not facially discriminatory, because the requirements for qualifying as a waiver country do not mention race at all. The first requirement being that the other country grant reciprocal waivers to US citizens traveling.

So, any country that refuses to grant reciprocal status, or meets any of the other objective criteria (see first link) would not meet the objective standards. And none of those standards are race-based.

The "other factors" does potentially leave room for countries to be excluded by discretion, thus making it possible that as implemented the program has a discriminatory impact.

But before you start claiming racial bias, it's worth checking whether many of the countries you're concerned about were able to meet the simple objective criteria.

2007-03-08 16:07:37 · answer #3 · answered by coragryph 7 · 2 1

No. Just because the results appear to be racially discriminatory the program isn't. Why look at the countries on the basis of the racial composition of the population? Look at wealth the countries you so listed are wealthy. You will see that all the countries so listed are wealthy. So the visa waver program is a rich country club.

You of course view things through a prism of race. You also destroyed what little credibility you might have had with me because you elected to exclude from your list of countries that participate in the Visa waver program three countries: Japan, Singapore and Brunei. Japanese, Chinese and Malay populations. Hardly white.

For countries to be able to participate in the visa waver program, they have to establish a track record over several years of compliance with US immigration laws. Only a small percentage of their citizens (I forget how small) can over stay their visas. Illegal immigration from the country has to be vanishingly small.

2007-03-08 17:24:40 · answer #4 · answered by wbwittmeyer 2 · 1 1

Americans and Europeans can go to almost any country without a visa , while it is not reciprocal in most 3rd world country's , first , they know that 99%of Americans and Europeans are going Togo home after they visit, that is not true with 3rd world citizens coming to America and Europe
they find it so much better they want to stay, there fore with out visas our country's would be over run with 3rd world people, it is bad enough now don't you think?

2007-03-08 16:28:49 · answer #5 · answered by james w 3 · 0 2

Not for anything, but.........

Its actually VERY hard for people from European countries to get a work visa to the US. Check out the immigration reform laws of 1965 (Ted Kennedy). I'll NEVER understand why the illegal Irish champion this guy.

2007-03-08 16:22:50 · answer #6 · answered by free_eagle716 4 · 2 0

One of the conditions for being a visa waiver country is having a low 'visa failure rate', meaning people return when they are supposed to and don't otherwise violate the terms of their visa. The countries that are on the program do tend to return home, the ones who aren't tend not to.

It has to do with economics, I am sure, but not racism.

We don't want illegal immigrants of any race.

.

2007-03-09 03:08:38 · answer #7 · answered by DAR 7 · 0 1

More due political affiliation than skin color, wealth, visa waiver reciprocation, and so on.

If a country is 'obedient', then it got a Visa Waiver Program.

That's why 'obedient' countries like Japan, Singapore, Brunei, Malaysia, and so on got a Visa Waiver Program.

And of course, you know what 'disobedient' country is called.

2007-03-08 21:50:44 · answer #8 · answered by E A C 6 · 1 2

They are in the program because citizens from those countries generally go home when the time comes.

2007-03-09 00:25:37 · answer #9 · answered by Yak Rider 7 · 1 1

No.

2007-03-08 16:00:43 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

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