Good question. don't you love how when someone asks a real good question like this, none of the Christians can answer it. Except to make the same old tired remarks, like your not a christian so god will not allow you to see the meaning, or your taking it out of context, or Jesus made the old testament void, etc.
2007-03-07 05:22:48
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answer #1
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answered by cj 4
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In ancient times slavery was an accepted institution. Those women and children that had been defiled by the rites of Ba' laam were considered by the Israelites to be an abomination and permanently unclean. Female slaves were used to increase the number of servants in a household and were considered valuable property. We cannot judge the past actions of people by current standards---any historian worth his salt will tell you that. What might seem ungodly today was considered obedient by the Israelites.
2007-03-07 13:29:59
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answer #2
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answered by Preacher 6
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There is no reference to them being sexual slaves. I appears to me that all the men were killed in battle but the women and children were spared. Moses was angry that they had not killed the women because they were led astray by the pagan god Balaam. So he order the women and the boys to be killed. Any attempt at justifying why the girls were not killed is pure speculation.
2007-03-07 13:24:24
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answer #3
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answered by gerafalop 7
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The boys would grow up and take revenge. You should see what the Sultan of Persia did to my people. He would raid villages in the Ukraine and kidnap all boys under the age of 5, raise them as righteous Muslim soldiers and 15 years later, send them against the Ukrainians just as a terror tactic, so that they would see their own faces as they were killing each other.
Middle Easterners are extremely devious! All kinds of atrocities are meted out during war. Women and children in China were put in rape camps by the Japanese during the 2nd world war. People are crazy and cruel and act without any law during war.
2007-03-07 13:20:39
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answer #4
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answered by Shinigami 7
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I don't know that we can "assume" sexual slaves. In our society...that's most likely what would have happened...but in that society it was most likely to marry them.
Moses is angry when they return and did not kill the women, becasue he says the women are the ones who followed Balaam's advice and turned the Israelites away from God. Then he tells them to kill all except the virgin women.
My guess is that only the virgin women were considered pure enough to marry into their people. They could have more then one wife at that time.
I think it's your problem that you read "sexual slaves" into that.
2007-03-07 13:31:37
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answer #5
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answered by Misty 7
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They were specifically kept as sexual slaves according to the bible because god tells them to "multiply."
And he doesn't mean marriage either... in the stories a Hebrew man marries one of the girls and god kills him for it.
So multiply without marriage? Obviously there is some rape and sexual slavery going on.
2007-03-07 13:29:48
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answer #6
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answered by Mike K 5
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Why do you challenge Christians with your question, instead of asking God? Christians have no obligation to argue these issues with you. Get on your knees and ask God for answers. Look to Him for encouragement. Knock and the door shall be opened for you.
2007-03-07 13:23:23
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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You sound like you have first hand experience...ha.,ha, ha,lol.
You also sound very unstable and easily led astray....apparently wrestling the Scriptures to your own destruction. "... They that are unlearned and unstable do wrestle, as they do other Scriptures, to their own destruction". (II Peter 3:16)
2007-03-07 13:18:35
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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