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Was it when he was born? While he was preaching? Was it as he was being crucified? When he died? Was it during the 2 nights he lay in the tomb? At his resurrection?

Exactly when did this change in the relationship between humanity and God occur, so that believing in Jesus took on miraculous power (whereas before that moment, believing in Jesus did not have such power)?

(I'm curious, because anyone who died just before that moment missed out, while if they died afterward, they had access to God's mercy.)

2007-03-07 04:56:19 · 11 answers · asked by NHBaritone 7 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

His wrath was changed to mercy the second Jesus died. In the old testament he sought the blood of a perfect sacrifice, an animal without blemish. It was exactly the same when Jesus died, only he was a 1-for-all sacrifice, perfect til the end of days.
The account given when Jesus died was that the curtain was torn from top to bottom. This curtain separated people from the holy of holys, which was treated as 'God in a box'. When the curtain tore it represented the barrier between God and man being torn. No longer did he look at us with wrath but with grace and mercy, so long as we cover ourselves with the blood of that perfect sacrifice, Jesus.
It does seem a little unfair to think that people who died the moment before he died had missed out on the opportunity that so many of us are blessed to have! I struggle with that one a little myself, but we also have much more responsibility now, we can't rely on a priest to seek forgiveness for our sins, we have to do it ourselves...and keep doing it daily!

2007-03-07 05:04:44 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

There was no "change from wrath to mercy". Many Christians like to toss out the phrase "love the sinner, but hate the sin"...problem is, we often display just the opposite. "Loving the sinner" (we are all imperfect) is about mercy & forgiveness. "Hating the sin" is about justice. When one speaks of "God's wrath" it reflects the just punishment for wrong-doing. Can mercy and wrath co-exist? Sure. If you are standing before a court and the judge believes you are sincerely sorry for something, he may be merciful and forgiving towards you. That doesn't mean you won't also face the consequences of justice.

Though many see the OT as "wrath" and the NT as "mercy", the truth is that both can be found in each. The entire compilation of OT books points to the fact that God would send a Messiah. That promise is, in itself, an act of grace & mercy. Before Christ, people accepted that "promise to come" via faith. Today, we too accept the completed promise by faith.

2007-03-07 05:26:49 · answer #2 · answered by Seven 5 · 1 0

God's justice was satisfied by the blood of Jesus, when Jesus died. Just the same as in the OT when a lamb was sacrificed for the sins of the people. Jesus is God's ultimate sacrifice for our sins. While on the cross He became our sins. 2 Corinthians 5:21 says, God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God.

At Jesus' sacrificial death, all people have the free gift of reconciliation with God. If they repent or turn away from their sins and choose Jesus as their Lord and Savior.

Are you really curious about the people who died before Jesus' death? If so, please read 1 Peter 3:20. Jesus, preached to the dead who died long ago and were in prison (Sheol or the grave), while He was dead.

2007-03-07 05:55:19 · answer #3 · answered by 4HIM- Christians love 7 · 1 0

hi, Wally: some baptized contributors interior the Corinth church have been thinking if the resurrection occurred; the saints who had died nonetheless lay interior the tomb. The surviving saints doubted the blessed wish: the resurrection of the ineffective. So the Apostle Paul wrote them a letter, affirming that Jesus had risen from the grave, and as the daddy raised Him, then Jesus replaced into the Firstfruits of the final harvest, and the enjoyed ones of religion can be resurrected. a million Corinthians 15:12 "Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the ineffective, how say some between you that there is not any resurrection of the ineffective? 15:13 yet whilst there be no resurrection of the ineffective, then is Christ no longer risen: 15:14 And if Christ be no longer risen, then [is] our preaching ineffective, and your faith [is] additionally ineffective. 15:15 Yea, and we are got here upon fake witnesses of God; because of the fact we've testified of God that he raised up Christ: whom he raised no longer up, if so be that the ineffective upward thrust no longer. 15:sixteen For if the ineffective upward thrust no longer, then isn't Christ raised: 15:17 And if Christ be no longer raised, your faith [is] ineffective; ye are yet on your sins. 15:18 Then in addition they that are fallen asleep [died] in Christ are perished. 15:19 If in this existence in basic terms we've wish in Christ, we are of all adult males maximum depressing. 15:20 yet now's Christ risen from the ineffective, [and] develop into the firstfruits of them that slept. Paul then will become a splash unfavorable and says: "Else what shall they do that are baptized for the ineffective, if the ineffective upward thrust never? why are they then baptized for the ineffective [Savior]?" (verse 15:29). Paul is belittling people who could think of they have been baptized for a ineffective Savior. regrettably this verse isn't taken in context with the the remainder of this "resurrection financial disaster" and a few Christians right this moment are actual baptized for the deceased. This fake doctrine is lacking biblical priority as is "holy underclothes." So what does Christ's resurrection advise to me? it particularly is the testimony of the daddy that Jesus' sacrificial atonement replaced into complete, and Jesus because of the fact the Lamb of God has gained the victory over devil's temptation and enjoyed His existence no longer unto dying. And that substitutionary dying, and His next resurrection, ensures that the dedicated will ascend to heaven whilst He comes lower back. enable's pass! Shalom, peace in Jesus, Ben Yeshua

2016-11-23 13:26:18 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

God displayed His mercy before/during/after the life of Jesus. Jesus's death made it possible for us to enter the kingdom of Heaven. Before grace, mans was subject to the OT law.

2007-03-07 05:04:47 · answer #5 · answered by nolet93 3 · 2 0

It didn't.
God's Wrath is still there for anyone who refuses the free gift of Salvation. The Cross merely provided a conduit through which His Mercy can now flow to us. Time and space had nothing to do with it, and all of eternity past to eternity future can benefit because of it. Do you?

2007-03-07 05:05:14 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

After the crucifixion, God was having a lot of anxiety, so the Holy Doctor gave Him some Xanax. He's been mellow ever since.

2007-03-07 04:59:20 · answer #7 · answered by WWTSD? 5 · 0 2

What makes you think it did?

Jesus was placed in charge of the judgement of people trying to enter Heaven after they died. "No one may enter the kingdom of Heaven but through me."

He also said "I am not here to change the law, not one stroke of one letter..."

Jesus was there to do His Father's will - be careful. Christ seems to be cutting us alot of slack, and it pleased His Father greatly, but be very careful.

2007-03-07 05:01:29 · answer #8 · answered by thedavecorp 6 · 2 0

It just kinda happened overnight I guess. The OT God is much different than the NT God in the Bible.

2007-03-07 04:58:31 · answer #9 · answered by Maverick 6 · 1 2

Believe what you can see and half of what you read.

2007-03-07 05:00:40 · answer #10 · answered by Dutch 4 · 0 2

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