“the prophet married her when she was six years old and he consummated his marriage when she was nine years old” http://www.islamicity.com/mosque/sunnah/bukhari/062.sbt.html#007.062.064
Google-it, verify it for yourself. Islamic scripture is perfectly clear about this, and only a minority of western Muslims even try to deny this...Muhammad at 57 pre-selected (pedo-engagement)Aisha at 6 for "marriage" and then committed this act Muslims call "marriage" when she was 9.
So heres the issue. Today there are over one billion Muslims on earth, all of whom are taught that all of Muhammad' conduct is the very "path to heaven". Thus, anything Muhammad ever did is a perfect example of human conduct...today and for all time. Thus, under Islamic law, its excellent for adults to marry children.
Stupid people like to say "it was common back then". It was never common for adults to marry children. Children did marry children, that was common, but never was adults and children common!
2007-03-06
13:45:44
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12 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
THE REAL ISSUE REMAINS:
Should the marriage of an adult to a child be considered perfect conduct now and forever?
What are the implications of making pedophilia an example of perfect conduct within a massive segement of humanity?
2007-03-06
13:47:33 ·
update #1
There is no proof they married when she was six it was in fact nine and there is no way of knowing when it was consummated if ever. My husbands grandmother married at 12 just two generations ago. It was for a long time the tradition that women married after they began puberty. This marriage was for a specific reason as where all Muhammad's (PBUH) marriages. It was so that she would live long after the prophet and spread the words revealed to him. There was no one woman more knowledgeable on earth about Islam than Aisha.
You obviously have no clue what your talking about "it was common back then" just as little as the 100 years ago it was still practiced. And a 9 year old then is not like a 9 year old now. They did not play with barbies and draw rainbows and watch cartoons all day. They did chores looked after there siblings and lived a tough life. It was every girls focus in life to find a husband and there could have been non better than the prophet. He could have had 50, nine year old wives if what you are suggesting where true, but its not true. It was because Allah told him to marry her. His first wife Kadijah was several years older than him so whats your point? As usual you dont have one. No surprise there then.....
2007-03-06 21:58:19
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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1st this was the time period and that's how the customs were
she was engaged to another man before she married the prophet (pbuh) but the marriage was not carried out..this shows you that it was nothing weird to be married at a you age in that time.
Rome and Juliet...when they met Juliet was not even 13 when she wanted to marry romeo who was about 19-27.
This marriage was also to strengthen the Muslim community.
You also hear in old stories (Isolde and Mark in the story Tristan) that a young princes would be married to a King of another country to strengthen the relationship of the two countries...for peace.
In Tristan young Isolde from Ireland..about 13 ..was to marry King Mark from England so that the 2 countries would get along better.
He never had any kind of sexual relationship with her
but he still loved her very much.
They never even lived together until she was older
about 18 or 19 years old.
To answer your really stupid question
In Islam it doesn't say anything about this kind of marriage..as to marry a younger person..it does recommend for you to marry in your 20s to someone of your close age for a better relationship. But Muhammad(pbuh) was not put on earth to start a family and fall in love
he was sent for a mission..he was to spread the message of God.
People should stop being so concerned about his personal life
and start paying attention to the over all message.
People grew up alot faster back then..then they did now
people now are ******* and need to be taken care of all the time.
Then you were considered an adult at 9 or 10 years old.
People statrted working at that age and starting families
so actually it was commen back then...
God Bless
2007-03-06 22:09:00
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answer #2
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answered by . 3
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Why is this a Muslim question as opposed to a general social question. Joseph was 35. Mary was 14. God the father impregnated what consider to be a child today.
You are wrong. Men marrying women under the age of 18 was very common and still is in the non-developed world.
2007-03-07 09:53:44
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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Hmmm another @sshole! Aishah was bethrothed to Muhammad (pbuh) at the age of 6 cos his best buddy do not want his daughter to be married off to someone else so he bethrothed her to his best friend. And Muhammad(pbuh) accepted it thus he said to his friend he will marry Aishah when she reached her puberty and who expected that she got her puberty at 9. So Muhammad(pbuh) had to wed his young bride Aishah as promised and according to Islam if a husband does not consumated his wife after 3 months of marriage the wedding is consider null or breached. So what to do he had to consummated his marriage. And for your info since you are so ignorant, my grandmother wed at 12 and my great grandmother at 11 and myself at 15. So whats wrong with that. And during that time if I am not wrong 9 years old girl and presume she is approcahing 10 she is a grown up girl and tall for and Arabian.
I really don understand why this is such an issue now when it was nothin back than...and check on your priest if you must!
2007-03-06 22:03:18
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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well well some people here doesnt read islamic history book.
when ayesha's father asked for muhammad's hand in marriage, ayesha was six and muhammad said no. only when she has reached her puberty and when she can make decision on her own, muhammad asked her hand in marriage. and she said yes, because thats her decision.
for your information, ayesha was one of the greatest female scholar in islam. her knowledge was great even when she was six. and she was already a WOMAN, not a girl, when she was nine.
and im not gonna call you a barnacle head for not knowing that..
2007-03-06 21:53:51
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answer #5
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answered by farina m 4
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to Muslim people its minor to none Muslim and the real world its pedophile .... i have made points on this subj many times before ( being Muslims myself ) i was asked to drop the subj and was told it wasn't true ....
2007-03-06 21:57:01
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answer #6
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answered by amal L 3
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it is major. Even Christ once said that " if anyone scandalized one of the little ones it would be better for him if he tied a100 lb mil stone around his neck and threw himself into the sea"!!!!!1 and you have to know when Christ speaks in that manner that he must be deadly serious.
2007-03-06 22:47:27
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answer #7
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answered by swindled 7
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It certainly is distasteful. Especially to a parent. You are beating a dead horse on this one however, you will not get a straight answer, this is only inflammatory.
2007-03-06 21:51:14
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answer #8
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answered by great gig in the sky 7
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Two main theories are often advance by orientalists to attack the pure character of Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) on his marriage to Aisha ® at her young age.
A. He was a Pedophile.
B. He was involved in child abuse.
Let’s analyze each theory to dig out the truth, through the Guidance of Allah (SWT).
A. Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) married Aisha ® because he was a pedophile?
Definition of a Pedophile:
"Pedophile: also spelled PEDOPHILIA, psychosexual disorder in which an adult's arousal and sexual gratification occur primarily through sexual contact with prepubescent children. The typical pedophile is unable to find satisfaction in an adult sexual relationship and may have low self-esteem, seeing sexual activity with a child as less threatening than that with an adult." Encyclopedia Britannica, 1998
"pe.do.phil.ia n [NL] (1906): sexual perversion in which children are the preferred sexual object -- pe.do.phil.i.ac or pe.do.phil.ic adj." Merriam Webster’s Collegiate Dictionary
The diagnostic criteria for pedophilia according to American Psychiatric Association:
Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent intense sexual urges and sexual arousing fantasies involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children.
The person has acted on these urges, or is markedly distressed by them.
The person is at least 16 years old and at least 5 years older than the child or children in A.
DSM-III-R Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, ed 3, revised, copyright American Psychiatric Association.
"In addition to their pedophilia, a significant number of pedophiles are concomitantly or have previously been involved in exhibitionism, voyeurism, or rape". (Voyeurism’s the recurrent preoccupation with fantasized or acts that involve seeking out or observing people who are naked, or are engaged in grooming or in sexual activity". Synopsis of psychiatry, Harold I.Kaplan et al., 5th ed., pg360, Publishers: Williams and Wilkens, 1988
2007-03-06 21:56:12
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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hoooooooooooooo!!
my sister gave you a good answer !!!
but i appreciate you visiting some islamic websites!!
2007-03-06 21:57:04
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answer #10
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answered by POLO 2
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