he doesn't..not even close, and that element of the name is the least of the problems.
2007-03-06 13:20:19
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answer #1
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answered by rosends 7
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Phrophicies are vauge at best, they like to cover thier bets, and leave the intrepretation to the descendants. If it is too precise, then it would never come 'true' but a few grey remarks can be translated as anything.
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
Immanuel means God with us - in the Masoretic Text; Dead Sea Scrolls it is 'and they' or 'and she' shall call him ...
In fact the Jewish (Hewbrew) translation is
Therefore the L-rd Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the young woman is with child, and she shall bear a son, and you [or, she] shall call his name Immanuel.
Bibles use the traditionally, “virgin.” Because this verse from Isaiah is quoted in Matt 1:23 in connection with Jesus’ birth,
Though the Hebrew word (‘almah) can sometimes refer to a woman who is a virgin (Gen 24:43), it does not carry this meaning inherently. The word is simply the feminine form of the corresponding masculine noun,(‘elem), “young man”; cf. 1 Sam.17:56; 20:22).
The Aramaic and Ugaritic cognate terms are both used of women who are not virgins - The word seems to pertain to age, not sexual experience, and would normally be translated “young woman.” The LXX translator(s) who later translated the Book of Isaiah into Greek sometime between the second and first century B.C., however, rendered the Hebrew term by the more specific Greek word parqenoz (parthenos), which does mean “virgin” in a technical sense. This is the Greek term that also appears in the citation of Isa 7:14 in Matt 1:23.
Therefore, regardless of the meaning of the term in the OT context, in the NT Matthew’s usage of the Greek term parqenoz (parthenos) clearly indicates that from his perspective a virgin birth has taken place.
Its a case of making the square peg phropecy fit the round hole of later texts by editing the text slightly. It is clear from the Hewbrew text, that Isaiah’s declaration (Is 7:14-16) was a prophecy about the unsuccessful siege of Jerusalem by the two armies from the north in 732BCE.
The verses Isaiah 7:15-16 state that, by the time this child (whose imminent birth was foretold in Isaiah 7:14) reaches the age of maturity (“… he knows to reject bad and choose good …”), the kings of the two enemy nations will be gone, in fact, they will be killed. Two Biblical passages, 2 Kings 15:29-30 and 2 Kings 16:9, confirm that this prophecy was contemporaneously fulfilled when these two kings were assassinated.
With an understanding of the context of Isaiah 7:14 alone, it is evident that the name of the child in Isaiah 7:14, Immanu'el, is a sign which points to the divine protection that King Ahaz and his people would enjoy from their otherwise certain demise at the hands of these two enemies. Clearly, Isaiah 7:14 is a near-term prophecy that is part of an historic narrative, and which was fulfilled in the immediate time frame, not some seven-and-a-half centuries in the future.
2007-03-06 13:53:34
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answer #2
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answered by DAVID C 6
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First of all the prophesy Isaiah 7:14 is fulfilled; you are taking things to literally. Emmanuel means "God with us" , that should be the end of the story, but if you like to continue w/ the agrument and say it should be taken word for word, well the prophesy NEVER literally says he will be named Emmanuel, it literraly says ".. [the virgin] will call him Emmanuel' Meaning Mary will call him that, not that he will be named Emmanuel. Either way you lose the agrument (figuratively or literally).
Next for somone to have fullfiled 8 propehesis and not be the Messiah, it literelly is 1 in 100 Billion. Jesus fullfilled 48 prophesis, which makes the odds he wasnt the Messiah 1 in trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion trillion (see the book "The Case for Christ"). So if you believe in math (probablities); believe in Jesus.
And finally to the Einstein that says the Old testment was written after Jesus was born, the Dead Sea Scrolls (containing to have parts of the Old Testment) have been proven by scientists and historian scholars to be written approximately 250 B.C.
2007-03-06 13:40:35
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answer #3
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answered by Jim K 2
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Wrong. The meaning of names of people and even cities and other places are extremely important to Biblical studies. If you fully translate a name back to the original language, you get the full meaning of it:
Example: Moses. When it is fully translated back to the Hebrew, it is "drawn up by water".
It gives you alot of information; also, Christs teachings include a whole lot of information that you would only know if you study the deeper lessons; one of those deeper studies include full translation of proper names.
Emmanuel (God with us) is kindof like this:
You have a kid who has been away, and he comes home. You might have a banner that says "welcome home best kid ever", even if his name is Steve. Did you get it wrong? No, of course not, you were making a point.
2007-03-06 14:17:40
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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He does fulfill this prophecy. Emmanuel means God with us! When you are a Christian, God is with you in your heart all the time, so this prophecy is fulfilled.
2007-03-06 13:36:07
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answer #5
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answered by robin rmsclvr25 4
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Emmanuel means "God with us" they did get it right.
2007-03-06 13:23:47
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answer #6
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answered by Misty 7
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how do you know that that porphecy wasn't written after Jesus came? You don't know what people did to manipulate documents back then.
2007-03-06 13:23:25
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answer #7
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answered by ? 1
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Its already fulfilled.
2007-03-06 13:22:14
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answer #8
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answered by Maurice H 6
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when you can find this mistake ,how many will be there that you
cant find it in the bible ????
2007-03-06 13:20:57
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answer #9
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answered by POLO 2
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